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1 Corinthians Aramaic primacy doubted...
Paul Younan Wrote:Aramaye (eastern pronunciation) and Armoyee (western pronunciation) is the same word. The words "Aramean" and "Gentile" are synonyms. I think distazo is incorrect here, as there is no lexical difference between "Aramean" and "Gentile". Just two different pronunciations, one eastern one western.


distazo Wrote:Hi Paul,

The word, written with different consonants could either mean 'syrian' or 'Greek'.
So, that could be Armaye, or Aramaye. (The 'a' vs the 'o' is known to me and is just the eastern vs the western prononciation)
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so; Armaye would mean 'gentiles' or 'Greek'
and Aramaye would mean Arameans.
I don't have this knowledge from myself b.t.w.!

I share the opinion with some, that it all means Syrian. The father of Timothy (for instance) was a Syrian, not a Greek.

Correct me if I'm wrong.

So... Aramaye and Armaye differences are irrelevant? Would the presence of 'a' be irrevelant in the apostle's time?

So the correct translation of those verses should rather be 'gentile'?

And any Aramaic primacy evidence of 1 Cor. 15:55? That appears like the Alexandrian Zorba blew it there...

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Re: Corinthians aramaiac primacy doubted... - by DrawCloser - 07-09-2012, 12:42 AM

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