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1 Corinthians Aramaic primacy doubted...
DrawCloser Wrote:Hold on. I am confused. May you please clarify -- why then doesn't the text read Armoyee instead of Aramoyee in those verses I quoted? Why did the writer or scribe have to use a different word in 1 Cor. 1:22-24, 10:32?

If both Gentiles (Armoyee) and Arameans (Aramoyee) sought wisdom, and if Aramoyee and Armoyee both then meant 'gentiles', why the different reading here if the aramaic usually uses Armoyee? <!-- sHuh --><img src="{SMILIES_PATH}/huh.gif" alt="Huh" title="Huh" /><!-- sHuh --> <!-- s:dontgetit: --><img src="{SMILIES_PATH}/dontgetit.gif" alt=":dontgetit:" title="Dont Get It" /><!-- s:dontgetit: -->

And side note, distazo (or Paul), why were the Aramean Christians called Kristyane? That has Christos as a root instead of something like Meshikha. Why a Greek title in an Aramean area?

Hi DrawCloser,

Aramaye (eastern pronunciation) and Armoyee (western pronunciation) is the same word. The words "Aramean" and "Gentile" are synonyms. I think distazo is incorrect here, as there is no lexical difference between "Aramean" and "Gentile". Just two different pronunciations, one eastern one western.

The Arameans Christians, to this day, call themselves "Meshikhaye" (Messianics). In Acts, we are told that Antioch adopted the name "Kristyane" first, since there was a large Greek-speaking population there. The Greeks called themselves that, not the Arameans. Although the two words later became synonymous and interchangeable.


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Re: Corinthians aramaiac primacy doubted... - by Paul Younan - 07-02-2012, 09:32 PM

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