"MarYah deception" ???

[Jerry]

Grammatically, (maur-yau`) is simply the singular emphatic to (mau-rau`), which is the base root, or singular absolute. This is what confuses most people, including myself, as typically one would assume (maur) to be the base root, and (mau-rau`) to be the singular emphatic. However, the use of (mau-re`) as the singular construct, whereas normally it would be the plural emphatic, gives evidence to (mau-rau`) being the base root for "Lord".

(mau-rau`) - "lord"
(mau-re`) - "the-lord-of ..."
(maur-yau`) - "the-lord"
(mau-ra-yau`) - "the-lords"

By context, it is indeterminate as to whether (mau-rau`) is singular emphatic or singular absolute, as both "the-lord" and "lord" seem appropriate in English. But it is the rest of the grammatical structure that defines it as the absolute, most notably the use of (mau-re`) as the singular construct, and the use of (mau-ra-yau`) as the plural emphatic to (maur-yau`).

Sedra 3 appears to have it right when they list the grammatical structure as this, for it is the only way all the components can be aligned to match the grammatical variables.

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