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Ressurection Accounts

I read the Interlinear of Matthew 28:1-4, Mark 16:4-5, Luke 24:1-4, and John 20:1-11. It sems that Luke and John intend for us to understand that there were two angels present. However, in Matthew and Mark's accounts it seems that only one angel was there.

Am I correct in understanding that the word "angel" in those two versions (Matthew and Mark) can be understood as angels (plural) in Aramaic. Irrespective of the fact that this might be allowable by grammar can it be understood contextually?

Shlama Akhi Keith,

Because of the presence of the masculine 3rd-person singular forms of verbs (e.g., "descended" in v.2 of Matthew, "sitting" in v.5 of Mark) and 3rd-person singular possessives (e.g., "his clothes" in v.3 of Matthew) it wouldn't be possible to read plurality in Matthew's or Mark's account.

Sometimes the "Syame" thing comes into play when there are no other *clues* in the phrase. It is in these rare instances where we see examples of Polysemy in the Greek families of text, since it was anyone's guess what was originally meant by the author.

Unfortunately, these aren't examples of that because there are clues in the phrase to let us know that the subject was singular.
+Shamasha Paul bar-Shimun de'Beth-Younan
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