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Best Greek primacy argument I found, until now. John 14:9
(10-05-2016, 06:31 PM)sestir Wrote: Nice!
Isn't the Greek case vocative rather than nominative?
This might be relevant:

Quote:In dialects with a morphological distinction between definite and indefinite nouns the vocative tends to be in the definite form. Thus, it appears as something like: “The child, come here!”. This is for example reflected in the Aramaic sentences embedded in the Greek text of the New-Testament.  

If so, couldn't ܦܝܠܝܦܐ simply be definite/emphatic in order to indicate address?

I don't think this is Aramaic grammar but a transliteration in Greek form. So, your PDF said, there is no vocative, but there were 'tricks' to add it to the language, for instance, by saying; "malki" or adding ow, malka (Oh, king)".

Maybe, we have a case where probably Yeshu litterally used a Greek 'barbarism' to address Philippos in a nice personal way.

I also found, in Romans 16, for instance, that the Latin follows the Greek way of writing, but the Aramaic has a unique way of writing names, for instance, it has 'Maria', as sole expression in the whole NT. which is the correct way, the Latins would pronounce it, while 'maryam' would be 'funny' latin (If I remember well)

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RE: Best Greek primacy argument I found, until now. John 14:9 - by distazo - 10-05-2016, 07:10 PM

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