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Real Presence in Eucharist

I need some help with linguistic comparison of Greek and Aramaic that I am not able to do alone. Sorry for my English by the way.

Recently I was involved in discussion with some protestans about real presence of Jesus' Body in Eucharist. Their point was that Jesus while talking about his body being bread in John 6:31-58 speaks figuratively and as proof they quote John 6:63 where Jesus speaks: "The Spirit gives life; the flesh counts for nothing. The words I have spoken to you are spirit and they are life". My response to them was in supplying link to some catholic explanation which rely on Greek language:

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Quote:1. Between John 6:23-53, the Greek for the word Jesus uses is "phago" which means literally to eat.
2. The Disciples take him literally and question the teaching (John 6:52).
3. Jesus changes to an absolutely literal word, "trogo" which means literally to gnaw or to crunch (John 6:54, 56, 57, 58).
4. Jesus repeats himself five times, enforcing his literal meaning. (John 6:51-56).
The word ?trogo? is only used two other times in the New Testament (Matthew 24:38 and John 13:18).
It always means to literally gnaw or chew meat.
"trogo" is never used metaphorically in Greek.
Opponents of the Real Presence cannot find one verse in Scripture where "trogo" is used symbolically
5. Some disciples, leave Jesus, returning to their old ways (John 6:60-66).

I have also learned form other sources that greek word for "body" and "flesh" used in John is "sarx" which has only strinct literal meaning and is never used figuratively.

My problem is that those protestants told me that this is all fabrication of Greek translator and that for example Peshitta and Latin Vulgata are diffrent. Could you please tell me is that true?

Apart from that - does Peshitta contain any hard, literal proof for Real Presence?

Messages In This Thread
Real Presence in Eucharist - by g_a_kowalski - 09-21-2012, 08:47 AM
Re: Real Presence in Eucharist - by Alan G77 - 09-25-2012, 09:15 AM

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