Thread Rating:
  • 0 Vote(s) - 0 Average
  • 1
  • 2
  • 3
  • 4
  • 5
Arabic and Aramaic
I have been told elsewhere that in Aramaic
Quote:the verb M$X is a cognate of the Arabic m$x

This seems strange to me as Aramaic is a much older language.

Any thoughts?
Shlama Akhi Michael,

The statement is true, in the sense that "cognate" simply means "equal."

In Aramaic, "oil" is "Mish-kha" (the root of Me-shi-kha)
In Hebrew, "oil" is "Mi-shakh" (the root of Me-shi-ach)
In Arabic, "oil" is "Mis-kha" (the root of Me-sikh)

The three languages are very close, because Abraham the ancestor of both Jews and Arabs was an Aramean. You can think of both Hebrew and Arabic as offshoots from Aramaic. So the vast majority of words in any of the three languages have direct cognates in the other two.

For instance, in Aramaic to say "sun" is "Sham-sha", in Hebrew it's "Sha-mash" and in Arabic the word is "Shams." As you can see, the consonantal root is the same in all three ($m$), however there are differences in which syllables are stressed and in vocalization of vowels.
+Shamasha Paul bar-Shimun de'Beth-Younan
[Image: sig.jpg]
judge - you're confusing, as you probably know by now, older with parent. Here's a great branch for you to examine.

<!-- m --><a class="postlink" href=""></a><!-- m -->

best regards,


Forum Jump:

Users browsing this thread: 1 Guest(s)