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Peshitta Aramaic
#1
July 19, 2004

Is the Aramaic of the Peshitta relatively modern Syriac that would not be associated with the First Century Apostles? Would Paul and John have used Palestinian Aramaic rather than Syriac? That's what my Greek scholar friend claims. He also claims that most of the cemetery headstones in First Century Palestine were engraved in GREEK according to published archeology reports! Hence, Greek was widely used by the First Century Jews.

Otto
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#2
Shlama Akhi Otto,

ograabe Wrote:Is the Aramaic of the Peshitta relatively modern Syriac that would not be associated with the First Century Apostles?

No, it's a very ancient Aramaic dialect spoken primarily in Mesopotamia and the other regions where Mesopotamians were transplanted by the Assyrian Kings (i.e., Samaria and the Galilee) - it's identical with inscriptions we have from Meshikha's time.

ograabe Wrote:Would Paul and John have used Palestinian Aramaic rather than Syriac?


Greek Primacists invented the word "Syriac" in an attempt to create a false dichotomy between the language of the Aramaic NT and the language of Jesus. This tactic is downright deceitful. We don't call the language you speak "Californiac", the language we speak "Americaic" just because it differs in vocalization or form from proper British English. Neither do we insist that Shakespeare or Queen Victoria spoke anything other than English.

Why must they give a totally different name (and one based on Greek) to Christian Aramaic as preserved in the Peshitta? I'll tell you why: jealousy.

A short time ago, a professor tried the same line with me - I immediately challenged him to define exactly what "Palestinian Aramaic" was. I wanted solid examples of his imaginary "Palestinian Dialect."

When he couldn't define the grammar in certain terms, I asked him to use the examples of Meshikha's Aramaic as preserved by the Greek NT versions as his basis.....and to demonstrate to me *exactly* how was it different, if at all, from the Aramaic of the Peshitta (what he insisted was "Syriac.")

He backpeddled and said that Meshikha's Aramaic words as preserved in the Greek NT versions were lacking the forms that were different. Yeah, how very convenient for him and his position!

The fact of the matter is that "Palestinian Aramaic" is a myth. There was no one dialect of Aramaic at the time that stretched from Lebanon to Samaria to Galilee to Syria to the Jordan to Jerusalem. Tens, if not dozens, of different (yet related) Aramaic dialects existed at the time. For anyone to claim otherwise, or to suggest that they know exactly which dialect was spoken at any given moment by Meshikha shows either a deep ignorance of the topic, or a deceitful purpose.

There wasn't any one dialect that Meshikha spoke - He spoke them all - He had to. He preached to lots of different people in lots of different areas of 1st-century Israel, Jordan and Syria. These people did not all speak the same dialect of Aramaic. There were lots of different dialects of Aramaic - and I'm sure Meshikha adjusted His dialect to suit the location he was preaching in at any given moment.

My nephew would alternate from his father's dialect (the Tyari dialect) to his mother's dialect (the Tkhuma) depending on who he was talking to when he was just three years old, AND he would switch to English for my wife Donna.

It's not a hard thing for an adult to do. I can switch from any of 8 modern dialects at the drop of a hat (the Tkhuma, Tyari, Jilu, Baz, Diz, Urmia, Elkosh and Mosul) - in addition to the classical archaic Aramaic of the Peshitta. The reason I can speak so many is because I grew up with people and have friends who speak all those different dialects. There are 8 other dialects of modern Aramaic, which I am variously fluent in. I can add a dialect a week if I sit down and compare the nuances of that dialect to my own. It's a simple thing.

ograabe Wrote:That's what my Greek scholar friend claims. He also claims that most of the cemetery headstones in First Century Palestine were engraved in GREEK according to published archeology reports! Hence, Greek was widely used by the First Century Jews.

Otto

That's very inaccurate. According to everything I've ever read, Greek inscriptions are very rare and mostly found on tombs of soldiers, Jewish collaborators like Herod or the Roman aristocracy.

See the tombs listed on the following website by the Israeli Ministry of Foreign Affairs - it lists some of the more famous tombs in Israel from the 2nd temple period.

http://www.mfa.gov.il/MFA/History/Early%...-%20Burial

Only one tomb - that of Jason has any Greek inscription on it - and even in this case an Aramaic inscription is there right along with the Greek.

Claiming that Greek was the language spoken in 1st-century Israel just because Rome ruled it is as absurd as claiming that English was the language spoken in India when Britain ruled it. Sure, some educated Indians who lived in the cities learned English - but you wouldn't expect to go out in the countryside and find villagers who inscribed tombstones in English. That's absurd. Maybe 1% of Indians during colonial times could speak the language of the British people. Maybe.

Perhaps you should ask your Greek Primacist friend if there are any Jews today who still speak Greek, or any synagogues that he knows of that recite prayers in 1st-century Greek, as it seems that according to him Greek was such a part of 1st-century Jewish life! <!-- s:dontgetit: --><img src="{SMILIES_PATH}/dontgetit.gif" alt=":dontgetit:" title="Dont Get It" /><!-- s:dontgetit: -->

Take care.
+Shamasha Paul bar-Shimun de'Beth-Younan
[Image: sig.jpg]
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#3
July 21, 2004

Dear Paul:

Thank you for your excellent reply to my query! I appreciate all that I have learned from you and others at peshitta.org,

I thank God for your efforts and your Peshitta interlinear translation.

Sincerely,

Otto
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#4
Shlama, Paul,
may I ask You what is the name of Your native Aramaic dialect, and what is the name of the dialect of <!-- m --><a class="postlink" href="http://www.peshitta.org/lexicon/">http://www.peshitta.org/lexicon/</a><!-- m --> ?
Thank You.
[font=Estrangelo (V1.1)]Fk^rwbw 0ml4 [/font]
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#5
Shlama Akhi Paul:
Thanks for your explanation... I could support it also from the SPANISH point of view: The SPANISH we speak in Cuba is sightly different from the SPANISH spoken in Spain, or Argentina, Mexico... And it's SPANISH (not considered as dialects). Even here, in Cuba, in the western part there's a little difference with the eastern part, in accent (I'm a eastern -born in Havana and I'm working now in Santiago de Cuba, the western part and I can notice that people here "sing" while speaking) and vocabulary.
I have a grammar of the TARGUM ARAMAIC ONKELOS which an argentinian class mate (when I was in Spain studying) recently sent to me, and I wonder how this "Aramaic" is so similar to the "Syriac"! (besides the hebrew script, of course). It's the same thing as here we say "ustedes" and in Spain they say "vosotros" (you, pl) or as we call "cigarro" to what spaniards call "puro" (cigar), etc...
Keep teaching us!
[font=Estrangelo (V1.1)]Fwx0b[/font]

Ab. Valentin
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#6
Shlama Qashisha Valentin,

Vsanzcm Wrote:The SPANISH we speak in Cuba is sightly different from the SPANISH spoken in Spain, or Argentina, Mexico... And it's SPANISH (not considered as dialects).

Are you *sure* it's not Cubaic? And the Mexican dialect is not Mexicaic? <!-- s:lol: --><img src="{SMILIES_PATH}/laugh.gif" alt=":lol:" title="Laugh" /><!-- s:lol: -->

Vsanzcm Wrote:I have a grammar of the TARGUM ARAMAIC ONKELOS which an argentinian class mate (when I was in Spain studying) recently sent to me, and I wonder how this "Aramaic" is so similar to the "Syriac"!

I've seen more difference in American English when comparing the "dialect" spoken by my wife's family in West Virginia vs. the "Chicagoaic" I speak. <!-- s:biggrin: --><img src="{SMILIES_PATH}/biggrin.gif" alt=":biggrin:" title="Big Grin" /><!-- s:biggrin: -->

Vsanzcm Wrote:(besides the hebrew script, of course).

That's the major difference that throws everyone off. If you were to write the Peshitta in the Ashuri script (See http://www.nazarene.net/aramaic/pyochanan.pdf) - no one would be able to tell it apart from Targum Onkelos or Targum Yonathan, unless they know some very minor little details in conjugation and about 3 or 4 other minor little differences.

It's ridiculous, that's the bottom line, this "Syriac" business. It's "Christian Aramaic" - that's the best name for it. But if the Greek Primacists were to admit that, it would be a very uncomfortable situation for them and many embarassing questions would be raised about their "primacy."
+Shamasha Paul bar-Shimun de'Beth-Younan
[Image: sig.jpg]
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#7
Shlama, Paul,
may I ask You what is the name of Your native Aramaic dialect, and what is the name of the dialect of <!-- m --><a class="postlink" href="http://www.peshitta.org/lexicon/">http://www.peshitta.org/lexicon/</a><!-- m --> ?
Thank You.
[font=Estrangelo (V1.1)]Fk^rwbw 0ml4[/font]
Reply
#8
Shlama Akhi Ivan,

Ivan Pavlovich Ostapyuk Wrote:Shlama, Paul,
may I ask You what is the name of Your native Aramaic dialect, and what is the name of the dialect of <!-- m --><a class="postlink" href="http://www.peshitta.org/lexicon/">http://www.peshitta.org/lexicon/</a><!-- m --> ?
Thank You.
[font=Estrangelo (V1.1)]Fk^rwbw 0ml4[/font]

Our dialect is the "Tkhuma", which is part of the Western group of Assyrian Neo-Aramaic. See http://www.christusrex.org/www1/pater/ethno/Iraq.html

The Aramaic we speak today is a simplified version of the Aramaic of the Peshitta.

Take care.
+Shamasha Paul bar-Shimun de'Beth-Younan
[Image: sig.jpg]
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#9
Vsanzcm Wrote:Shlama Akhi Paul:
Thanks for your explanation... I could support it also from the SPANISH point of view: The SPANISH we speak in Cuba is sightly different from the SPANISH spoken in Spain, or Argentina, Mexico...
[font=Estrangelo (V1.1)]Fwx0b[/font]
Ab. Valentin

Vsanzcm:

That's because Spanish isn't a real language but merely an incorrect byword for a family of languages. This family consists of the real languages - Castilian; Catalan; Basque and Galician.

So depending where you go in Spain you'll be exposed to very different languages. Basque for example is nothing like the other three.

The so-called Spanish most people are exposed to is the Castilian language. However in those places where Galician populations immigrated in large numbers their language is actually Galician. Cuba is an example of this as they speak Galician rather than Castilian, though the uninitiated in such matters call it Spanish nevertheless.

Galician is really Portuguese being spoken in Spain. Like the Greeks, the Castilians try to trick foreigners into believing it's all the same but its not.

This is why a Cuban will understand Portuguese and Galician people more easily than other peoples such as Argentinians who were raised under the Castilian language.
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#10
Shlama everyone,


Paul Younan Wrote:Shlama Akhi Otto,

Greek Primacists invented the word "Syriac" in an attempt to create a false dichotomy between the language of the Aramaic NT and the language of Jesus. This tactic is downright deceitful. We don't call the language you speak "Californiac", the language we speak "Americaic" just because it differs in vocalization or form from proper British English. Neither do we insist that Shakespeare or Queen Victoria spoke anything other than English.


The real reason why the English words "Syriac" and "Aramaic" caused confusion to many English speakers

I agree with what Paul said regarding Aramaic. However, I disagree with him in putting the blame on "Greek Primacists." No deception was intended whatsoever by past scholars (unless you are referring to a Greek primacist today who himself/herself is confused by these two words or trying to confuse you, because you are debating him/her).

We all know that English borrowed many words from Greek and Latin language (e.g. democracy, philosophy, etc). And "Syriac" is one of them. "Syriac" and "Aramaic" are coined by two groups of English speaking scholars referring to "lishana Aramaya" (Aramaic tounge/language) in different literatures or scholarly works. This creates confusion to modern day laymen (and scholars too).

Greeks called the Arameans "Syrians" and their language "Syriac." (Pardon me for using English words instead of Greek. I just want to make my point clear). This has something to do with Ashur and Ashuri. (*see footnote below but later)

For example, look at the Hebrew word "Aram" (ארם) in 1 Chronicles 19:12

ויאמר אם־תחזק
ממני ארם והיית לי
לתשועה ואם־בני
עמון יחזקו ממך
והושעתיך׃

<!-- m --><a class="postlink" href="http://www.ultimasurf.net/bible/tanakh/B13C019.htm">http://www.ultimasurf.net/bible/tanakh/B13C019.htm</a><!-- m -->

and compare it with Syros (συρος) in 1 Chronicles 19:12 of the Septuagint.

και ειπεν εαν κρατηση υπερ εμε *συρος και εση μοι
εις σωτηριαν και εαν υιοι Αμμων κρατησωσιν υπερ σε και
σωσω σε

<!-- m --><a class="postlink" href="http://septuagint.org/LXX/1Chronicles/1Chronicles19.html">http://septuagint.org/LXX/1Chronicles/1 ... les19.html</a><!-- m -->


and also ARAMITH (ארמית) of Ezra 4:7 in Hebrew :


ובימי ארתחששתא
כתב בשלם מתרדת
טבאל ושאר כנותו
על־ארתחששתא מלך
פרס וכתב הנשתון
כתוב ארמית ומתרגם
ארמית׃

<!-- m --><a class="postlink" href="http://www.ultimasurf.net/bible/tanakh/B15C004.htm">http://www.ultimasurf.net/bible/tanakh/B15C004.htm</a><!-- m -->


and compare it with SYRISTI ( συριστι ) of Ezra 4:7 in Greek Septuagint

και εν ημεραις Αρθασασθα εγραψεν εν ειρηνη Μιθραδατη Ταβεηλ συν
και τοις λοιποις συνδουλοις αυτου προς Αρθασασθα βασιλεα Περσων εγραψεν ο φορολογος γραφην *συριστι και ηρμηνευμενην

<!-- m --><a class="postlink" href="http://septuagint.org/LXX/Ezra/Ezra4.html">http://septuagint.org/LXX/Ezra/Ezra4.html</a><!-- m -->


From the Septuagint we know that Greeks have been calling the Arameans "Syrians" and their Aramaic language "Syriac" since the time (or before the time) of the translators of the Septuagint. These Greek words συρος (referring to Hebrew ARAM) and συριστι (referring to Hebrew ARAMITH) are imported into English and transliterated as Syria, Syrian, and SYRIAC.

If any of the readers here can't read Hebrew or Greek, I will give you the English translations of 1 Chronicles 19:12 and Ezra 4:7 from NIV(New International Version) , NKJV(New King James Version), and KJV(King James Version) and I hope it will settle this matter once and for all that Syriac is synonymous to Aramaic. <!-- sSmile --><img src="{SMILIES_PATH}/smile.gif" alt="Smile" title="Smile" /><!-- sSmile -->

1 Chronicles 19:12 NIV:

Joab said, "If the ARAMEANS are too strong for me, then you are to rescue me; but if the Ammonites are too strong for you, then I will rescue you.

1 Chronicles 19:12 NKJV:

Then he said, "If the SYRIANS are too strong for me, then you shall help me; but if the people of Ammon are too strong for you, then I
will help you.

1 Chronicles 19:12 KJV 1611:

And he said, If the SYRIANS be too strong for me, then thou shalt help me: but if the children of Ammon be too strong for thee, then I will help thee.

<!-- m --><a class="postlink" href="http://www.ultimasurf.net/bible/kjv/B13C019.htm">http://www.ultimasurf.net/bible/kjv/B13C019.htm</a><!-- m -->


1 Chronicles 19:12 Latin Vulgate:

dixitque si vicerit me Syrus auxilio eris mihi sin autem superaverint te filii Ammon ero tibi in praesidium

<!-- m --><a class="postlink" href="http://www.ultimasurf.net/bible/vulgate/B13C019.htm">http://www.ultimasurf.net/bible/vulgate/B13C019.htm</a><!-- m -->


Ezra 4:7 NIV:

And in the days of Artaxerxes king of Persia, Bishlam, Mithredath, Tabeel and the rest of his associates wrote a letter to Artaxerxes. The letter was written in ARAMAIC script and in the ARAMAIC LANGUAGE. [ 4:7 Or [ written in Aramaic and translated ] ]


Ezra 4:7 NKJV:

In days of Artaxerxes also, Bishlam, Mithredath, Tabel, and the rest of their companions wrote to Artaxerxes king of Persia; and the letter was written in ARAMAIC script, and translated into the ARAMAIC LANGUAGE.


Ezra 4:7 KJV 1611:

And in the days of Artaxerxes wrote Bishlam, Mithredath, Tabeel, and the rest of their companions, unto Artaxerxes king of Persia; and the writing of the letter was written in the SYRIAN TOUNGE, and interpreted in the SYRIAN TOUNGE.

<!-- m --><a class="postlink" href="http://www.ultimasurf.net/bible/kjv/B15C004.htm">http://www.ultimasurf.net/bible/kjv/B15C004.htm</a><!-- m -->


Ezra 4:7 in Latin Vulgate explains the origin of Syriac in English

et in diebus Artarxersis scripsit Beselam Mitridatis et Tabel et reliqui qui erant in consilio eorum ad Artarxersen regem Persarum epistula autem accusationis scripta erat SYRIACE et legebatur sermone syro

<!-- m --><a class="postlink" href="http://www.ultimasurf.net/bible/vulgate/B15C004.htm">http://www.ultimasurf.net/bible/vulgate/B15C004.htm</a><!-- m -->




If you are still not convinced that Syriac and Aramaic are the same language then I hope the two English Bibles above will help clarify the confusion caused by these two English words - one borrowed from Greek language and the other one from Hebrew and Aramaic.

From the Bible itself (the book of Ezra quoted above and other parts of the Bible - what higher authority than this do we need? <!-- sBig Grin --><img src="{SMILIES_PATH}/happy.gif" alt="Big Grin" title="Happy" /><!-- sBig Grin --> ) we know that Aramaic had become the international lingua franca in the sixth century B.C., in the Persian empire, under Darius I, and extended from the Indus valley to Egypt.

Despite Greek influences, after the conquest of Alexander the Great (or was he Alexander the Gay? <!-- sHuh --><img src="{SMILIES_PATH}/huh.gif" alt="Huh" title="Huh" /><!-- sHuh --> I am referring to the movie Alexander <!-- s:lookround: --><img src="{SMILIES_PATH}/lookround.gif" alt=":lookround:" title="Look Round" /><!-- s:lookround: --> ) Aramaic remained the vernacular language of the conquered peoples in the Middle East, and the adjacent countries. Unlike the Arab Muslim conquerors, the Greek conquerors did not force common folks to speak Greek. Aramaic ceded to Arabic in the Middle East after the Islamic invasions and conquests of the Middle East in the 9th century A.D. two full centuries after Islamic conquests of Damascus in 633 A.D. and Jerusalem in 635 A.D. by Khalid ibn al-Walid (better known as "The SWORD of Allah" <!-- s:dontgetit: --><img src="{SMILIES_PATH}/dontgetit.gif" alt=":dontgetit:" title="Dont Get It" /><!-- s:dontgetit: --> ) and Caliph Umar.

Aramaic ceased to be a uniform language during the Hellenistic period of the Seleucids, when various dialects began to form, due to regional influences of pronunciation and vocabulary. The language henceforth divided into an Eastern branch (with a number of dialects), and a Western branch (with its dialects), but all have great similarity just like Chinese language which has many dialects - Mandarin, Cantonese, Hokkien, etc. It depends on where you come from in China though Mandarin now is the official language. For example, my Chinese dialect is Hokkien. My nephews and nieces without formal training learned Cantonese dialect from watching Cantonese programs since young. Here in Singapore all Cantonese programs are dubbed into Mandarin, because the government wants its citizen to use Mandarin as the official language of communication between Chinese from different dialects. You can see on TV that the Cantonese programs are dubbed in such a way that as though the original Cantonese actors were actually speaking Mandarin. That shows the great similarity between Chinese dialects.

I am not an Aramaic expert like Paul, but judging from my daily reading of the Aramaic/Syriac of Targums and the Aramaic/Syriac of Peshitta I don't think they differ much in grammar, syntax, and vocabularies and it will not be difficult for me to learn one dialect of Aramaic if I know another dialect - just like my nephews and nieces learned Cantonese from TV. All it takes for me is to continously visit this site on daily basis:

<!-- m --><a class="postlink" href="http://cal1.cn.huc.edu/searching/targumsearch.html">http://cal1.cn.huc.edu/searching/targumsearch.html</a><!-- m -->


Greek loan-words in Syriac/Aramaic language occured during the Hellenistic period mentioned above. This explains the uses of some Greek loan-words in the Peshitta Tanakh (Old Testament). Since the Peshitta Tanakh is far ancient than our Peshitta New Testament, we should not be surprised to see some Greek loan-words in the Aramaic/Syriac New Testament. However, the same thing cannot be said about the occurences of many Aramaic words and syntax in the Greek New Testament.

Regarding the Old Testament Peshitta, please take note that the large colony of the Jews of Orhai (later called Edessa by Seleucids, and now called Urfa in Turkey), and the Jewish colonies in Assyria in the kingdom of Adiabene whose royal house had converted to Judaism, possessed the Peshitta Old Testament. This version was taken over by all the Churches in the East which used, and still use Aramaic, as far as India (Thomas is said to be martyred in India in 72 A.D. , remember? <!-- s:bigups: --><img src="{SMILIES_PATH}/bigups.gif" alt=":bigups:" title="Big Ups" /><!-- s:bigups: --> ), Turkestan and China.

The Greeks must have interacted with the Semitic people long before the invention of the Greek alphabets since they are borrowed from Shemitic people. There is no meaning in the Greek letters like Alpha, Beta, Gamma, Delta, etc while in Hebrew or Semitic languages they have meanings. Aleph = bull, Beth = house, Gimel = camel, Daleth = door. etc.




CONCLUSION

SYRIAC = ARAMAIC = ARAMAYA
Many scholars today confused the words Syriac and Aramaic as they use the former to refer to the language of the Peshitta and the latter to the Aramaic/Syriac language of the Bible when the truth is these two words have same origin - one is coined from the Greek language while the other one from the Hebrew and Aramaic/Syriac languages.



<!-- sSmile --><img src="{SMILIES_PATH}/smile.gif" alt="Smile" title="Smile" /><!-- sSmile -->


Shlama,

Dan Gan




PS
*footenote regarding Ashur, Ashuri, and Greek Syros & Syristi


Paul Younan Wrote:It's important to keep in mind that "Assyrian" is an ethnicity (like "Chinese"), it's not a religion. Assyrians follow many different religions, or none at all. The original Assyrians worshipped Ashur, a pagan deity, and some still do today.

quoted from another thread <!-- l --><a class="postlink-local" href="http://www.peshitta.org/forum/viewtopic.php?t=1030">viewtopic.php?t=1030</a><!-- l -->

Regarding the pagan deity Ashur, is it possible that this Ashur was actually the Ashur in Genesis 10: 22 ?
According to Genesis, Ashur was one of the sons of Shem. He was the brother of Aram. Probably his descendants deified him later as a deity. Well, that is anoher story by itself.

The sons of Shem:
Elam, Asshur, Arphaxad, Lud and Aram. (Genesis 10:22, NIV)


The children of Shem; Elam, and Asshur, and Arphaxad, and Lud, and Aram. (KJV)

<!-- m --><a class="postlink" href="http://www.ultimasurf.net/bible/kjv/B01C010.htm">http://www.ultimasurf.net/bible/kjv/B01C010.htm</a><!-- m -->


בני שם עילם ואשור
וארפכשד ולוד
וארם׃

<!-- m --><a class="postlink" href="http://www.ultimasurf.net/bible/tanakh/B01C010.htm">http://www.ultimasurf.net/bible/tanakh/B01C010.htm</a><!-- m -->


υιοι *σημ Αιλαμ και Ασσουρ και Αρφαξαδ και Λουδ και
Αραμ και Καιναν (LXX)

<!-- m --><a class="postlink" href="http://septuagint.org/LXX/Genesis/Genesis10.html">http://septuagint.org/LXX/Genesis/Genesis10.html</a><!-- m -->


hence the explanation of the origin of SHEMITIC languages according to the Bible in Genesis 10: 31 later:

These are the sons of SHEM by their clans and LANGUAGES, in their territories and nations. (NIV)

These are the sons of SHEM, after their families, after their TOUNGES, in their lands, after their nations (KJV)

<!-- m --><a class="postlink" href="http://www.ultimasurf.net/bible/kjv/B01C010.htm">http://www.ultimasurf.net/bible/kjv/B01C010.htm</a><!-- m -->

So, is it possible that Assyrians actually got their name from their ancestor Asshur (the Biblical Asshur in Genesis 10:22) instead of pagan deity Asshur (who actually was the same Asshur of Genesis 10:22 but deified by his descendants later)?

I prefer the Biblical explanation to the origin of the Assyrian people. <!-- s:biggrin: --><img src="{SMILIES_PATH}/biggrin.gif" alt=":biggrin:" title="Big Grin" /><!-- s:biggrin: -->


Further evidences:


Genesis 10:11 (KJV):

Out of that land went forth Asshur, and builded Nineveh, and the city Rehoboth, and Calah

<!-- m --><a class="postlink" href="http://www.ultimasurf.net/bible/kjv/B01C010.htm">http://www.ultimasurf.net/bible/kjv/B01C010.htm</a><!-- m -->


מן־הארץ ההוא יצא
אשור ויבן
את־נינוה ואת־רחבת
עיר ואת־כלח׃

<!-- m --><a class="postlink" href="http://www.ultimasurf.net/bible/tanakh/B01C010.htm">http://www.ultimasurf.net/bible/tanakh/B01C010.htm</a><!-- m -->



Numbers 24:22 (KJV):

Nevertheless the Kenite shall be wasted, until Asshur shall carry thee away captive

<!-- m --><a class="postlink" href="http://www.ultimasurf.net/bible/kjv/B04C024.htm">http://www.ultimasurf.net/bible/kjv/B04C024.htm</a><!-- m -->


Numbers 24:22

כי אם־יהיה לבער
קין עד־מה אשור
תשבך׃

<!-- m --><a class="postlink" href="http://www.ultimasurf.net/bible/tanakh/B04C024.htm">http://www.ultimasurf.net/bible/tanakh/B04C024.htm</a><!-- m -->
One of the first owners of the facsimile of <a href="http://www.amazon.com/exec/obidos/ASIN/0802837867/ref=nosim/ultimyourulti-20"><b>Codex Leningrad</b></a>
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