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Many or the many
#1
I was hoping you all can help me with an Aramaic reading.

The Amplified Bible has Romans 5:19 as:

For just as by one man's disobedience THE MANY (the mass, all) were constituted sinners, so by one man's obedience THE MANY (the mass, all) will be constituted righteous - made acceptable to God, brought into right standing with Him.

I like the way it sounds, that it's different from other readings in that the word "the" is placed in front of "many." But I wanted to confirm if the Aramaic reads that way.

David
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#2
Shlama Akhi David,

I just posted a while back quoting Alexander Hislop. He informed us that 'Cahn' was 'a priest' and 'Cahna' (emphatic state), meant 'the priest.' I'm assuming it would be the same situation with 'sagiyaa'-[font=Estrangelo (V1.1)]00ygs[/font]--because according to the popup lexicons at peshitta.com this word is also in the emphatic state. From all appearances, then, the Amplified is right on track! <!-- s:lookround: --><img src="{SMILIES_PATH}/lookround.gif" alt=":lookround:" title="Look Round" /><!-- s:lookround: -->

<!-- m --><a class="postlink" href="http://www.peshitta.com/word.html?word=13929">http://www.peshitta.com/word.html?word=13929</a><!-- m -->

Shlama w'Burkate, Larry Kelsey
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#3
Thank you very much Larry.

That really helps in understanding what Paul was trying to say. He references "all men" with "the many." It wouldn't make sense for Paul to say "all men" and then follow it up with just "many."

Coblentz
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