03-27-2004, 01:52 PM
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About Pascho, you wrote:
The ASV apparently does not use "endure" at all to translate "pascho". I think the NAS is in error in the one place it so translates. (By the way, Acts 1:3 translates pascho as "His passion", referring to Christ's crucifixion).
I certainly would not use The Mark 5:26 reading as a case supporting The Peshitta against The OS in the way you have. You would only be weakening your argument with a poor example.
The fact is that the Greek agrees better with The Peshitta, as it should, since it comes from The Peshitta and not The OS. This is how I would approach it.
Why does the Greek unanimously support the Peshitta reading here, if as Trimm claims, the Greek came from The OS ?
You could change the argument in that way and retain the example.
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Dave B
About Pascho, you wrote:
Quote:The NAS New Testament Greek Lexicon"Endure" is not part of the definition. It is translated "endure" once (NASV) out of the 40 places pascho occurs. That does not qualify as an alternate definition in my book. Lexical definitions do not give "endure" for this word; upomeno is the word meaning ,"I endure".
Strong's Number: 3958 Browse Lexicon
Original Word Word Origin
pasco apparently a root word
Transliterated Word TDNT Entry
Pascho 5:904,798
Phonetic Spelling Parts of Speech
pas'-kho Verb
Definition
to be affected or have been affected, to feel, have a sensible experience, to undergo
in a good sense, to be well off, in good case
in a bad sense, to suffer sadly, be in a bad plight
of a sick person
NAS Word Usage - Total: 40
endured 1, endured...sufferings 1, suffer 22, suffered 10, suffering 4, suffers 2
The ASV apparently does not use "endure" at all to translate "pascho". I think the NAS is in error in the one place it so translates. (By the way, Acts 1:3 translates pascho as "His passion", referring to Christ's crucifixion).
I certainly would not use The Mark 5:26 reading as a case supporting The Peshitta against The OS in the way you have. You would only be weakening your argument with a poor example.
The fact is that the Greek agrees better with The Peshitta, as it should, since it comes from The Peshitta and not The OS. This is how I would approach it.
Why does the Greek unanimously support the Peshitta reading here, if as Trimm claims, the Greek came from The OS ?
You could change the argument in that way and retain the example.
[font=Estrangelo (V1.1)]Fxrwb[/font]
Dave B