04-06-2004, 12:07 PM
Shlama Akhi Paul,
Did not a Semite write Zechariah 12:1-10 ? :
The burden of the word of the LORD for Israel, saith the LORD, which stretcheth forth the heavens, and layeth the foundation of the earth, and formeth the spirit of man within him
v10- 10 And I will pour upon the house of David, and upon the inhabitants of Jerusalem, the spirit of grace and of supplications: and they shall look upon me whom they have pierced, and they shall mourn for him, as one mourneth for his only son, and shall be in bitterness for him, as one that is in bitterness for his firstborn.
According to this Semite, God would be pierced.
As to the blood of God, did not a Semite write:
[font="Estrangelo (V1.1)"]hrgplw 0yrmd hmdl wh byxm[/font]
He is guilty of the blood of Yahweh , and of His body ?
1 Cor 11:27
Why protest the Jacobite text of Acts 20:28, when 1 Cor. confirms it ?
What do you think ? Did God become man or not ? If He did, "then He emptied Himself" of His glory and Divine form (Phillip. 2:5-11)and "became lower than the angels for a time for the suffering of death" ...
If He bacame a man, surely He did it ,not to watch someone else suffer and die; He did it to suffer and die Himself. No man's blood, however sinless, could atone for the sins of the world; no archangel could do it; only the Deity, Jehovah Himself could atone for all mankind.
If Paul did not mean that Yahweh shed His blood, why did he write it ?
A Semite like Paul had to contend with other Semites who would never think such things; he gave his life for thinking ,writing and preaching such things; but then, so did a Semite named "Yeshua Netsari".
I await your response; this should be interesting.
[font="Estrangelo (V1.1)"]Fxrwb F0ygs[/font]
Dave B
Did not a Semite write Zechariah 12:1-10 ? :
The burden of the word of the LORD for Israel, saith the LORD, which stretcheth forth the heavens, and layeth the foundation of the earth, and formeth the spirit of man within him
v10- 10 And I will pour upon the house of David, and upon the inhabitants of Jerusalem, the spirit of grace and of supplications: and they shall look upon me whom they have pierced, and they shall mourn for him, as one mourneth for his only son, and shall be in bitterness for him, as one that is in bitterness for his firstborn.
According to this Semite, God would be pierced.
As to the blood of God, did not a Semite write:
[font="Estrangelo (V1.1)"]hrgplw 0yrmd hmdl wh byxm[/font]
He is guilty of the blood of Yahweh , and of His body ?
1 Cor 11:27
Why protest the Jacobite text of Acts 20:28, when 1 Cor. confirms it ?
What do you think ? Did God become man or not ? If He did, "then He emptied Himself" of His glory and Divine form (Phillip. 2:5-11)and "became lower than the angels for a time for the suffering of death" ...
If He bacame a man, surely He did it ,not to watch someone else suffer and die; He did it to suffer and die Himself. No man's blood, however sinless, could atone for the sins of the world; no archangel could do it; only the Deity, Jehovah Himself could atone for all mankind.
If Paul did not mean that Yahweh shed His blood, why did he write it ?
A Semite like Paul had to contend with other Semites who would never think such things; he gave his life for thinking ,writing and preaching such things; but then, so did a Semite named "Yeshua Netsari".
I await your response; this should be interesting.
[font="Estrangelo (V1.1)"]Fxrwb F0ygs[/font]
Dave B