09-29-2003, 06:26 AM
Paul Younan Wrote:[You'd be amazed - there are only very small spelling differences. Mostly things like spelling convention (things like "bar Nasha" for "Son of Man" vs. "Barnasha".......i.e., one word vs. two words spelled out).
Shlama Paul,
I'm currently using "Bar Enasha" to transliterate "The Son of Man" based on the below:
"It is generally considered that the Greek is a translation of bar 'enosh, but as used in the emphatic state, which is used in Aramaic instead of the definite article with a noun, hence bar 'enasha'. These forms are characteristic of Middle Aramaic. Later, during the first centuries C.E., the initial aleph disappeared, and thus from 200 C.E.onwards the expression was bar nash instead of bar Gnash, or bar nasha' instead of bar 'enasha'. Cf. Maurice Casey, Son of Man, the Interpretation and Influence of Daniel 7 (London: SPCK, 1979), 224-28; Barnabas Lindars, Jesus Son of Man, A Fresh Examination of the Son of Man Sayings in the Gospels (Grand Rapids, Mich.: William B. Eerdmans Co., 1983), 17-28, and 194, n. 2; and Alger F. Johns A Short Grammar of Biblical Aramaic (Berrien Springs, Mich.: Andrews University Press, 1972), 9-10."
Would you agree this is accurate? If so this would seem to date the Khabouris manuscript to post 200 AD (I have heard it was dated to about 310 by a reference to a persecution prior to being damaged).
On a different note it would really appreciate someone giving me the transliterations for the Aramaic of:
1. Sadducee/s
2. Scribe/s
Shlama, Craig