02-25-2010, 02:18 PM
Shlama Keefa,
The problem is not with the words themselves but the fact that Mark 12:37 and Luke 20:44 (the parallel verses) read [font="Estrangelo (V1.1)"]zrm[/font].
The questions regarding Matthew 22:43-45 are:
My conclusion is that [font="Estrangelo (V1.1)"]0yrm[/font] in Matthew 22:43,45 either was not the original reading or was a mistake by the hand of Matthew.
The problem is not with the words themselves but the fact that Mark 12:37 and Luke 20:44 (the parallel verses) read [font="Estrangelo (V1.1)"]zrm[/font].
The questions regarding Matthew 22:43-45 are:
- Can this variant be correct?
- Had Y'shua been making a reference to [font="Estrangelo (V1.1)"]zrm[/font], as is a constraint of the context, why would he say [font="Estrangelo (V1.1)"]0yrm[/font]?
My conclusion is that [font="Estrangelo (V1.1)"]0yrm[/font] in Matthew 22:43,45 either was not the original reading or was a mistake by the hand of Matthew.