02-08-2010, 09:58 PM
Aaron, I contemplated that argument as well. But my theory is a grammatical one.
(moro`) = "the-master" or "a-master", depending upon context; most often signifying Yeshua, or maybe just "a-master of-the-house".
(mor:yo`) = "that-the-master" or "that-a-master", depending upon context; most often signifying YHWH of the OT, but not always.
Maybe it isn't rendered quite right yet, but this may give the reader some leeway to believe that the intent of the verse is for "that-a-master" to refer back to "my-master".
... And-how-as-this Dawiyd, in-spirit, calling to-him 'that-a-master'? Saying thus, "Of-said that-the-Master to my-master, 'Sit to-thee from my-right until of-I-to-put thy-enemies below thy-feet.'" If such-for Dawiyd calling to-him 'that-a-master', how-as-this his-son he-be?
(moro`) = "the-master" or "a-master", depending upon context; most often signifying Yeshua, or maybe just "a-master of-the-house".
(mor:yo`) = "that-the-master" or "that-a-master", depending upon context; most often signifying YHWH of the OT, but not always.
Maybe it isn't rendered quite right yet, but this may give the reader some leeway to believe that the intent of the verse is for "that-a-master" to refer back to "my-master".
... And-how-as-this Dawiyd, in-spirit, calling to-him 'that-a-master'? Saying thus, "Of-said that-the-Master to my-master, 'Sit to-thee from my-right until of-I-to-put thy-enemies below thy-feet.'" If such-for Dawiyd calling to-him 'that-a-master', how-as-this his-son he-be?