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book of Hebrews: better from Greek, or Aramaic?
"the word 'our' doesn't exist'

Greek has the capability of saying 'his eyes':
John 17:1 (YLT)
https://biblehub.com/interlinear/john/17-1.htm
These things spake Jesus, and lifted up his eyes to the heaven, and said -- 'Father, the hour hath come, glorify Thy Son, that Thy Son also may glorify Thee,
kai/καὶ/and
eparas/ἐπάρας/ having lifted up
tous/τοὺς/the
ophthalmous/ὀφθαλμοὺς/eyes
autou/αὐτοῦ/ of Him

Greek has the capability of saying 'my lord':
Matthew 22:44 (DLNT)
https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?se...rsion=DLNT
https://biblehub.com/interlinear/matthew/22-44.htm
https://biblehub.com/greek/3588.htm
‘_The_ Lord said _to_ my Lord,
“Be sitting on My right _side_,
until I put Your enemies under Your feet”’?
Eipen/Εἶπεν/Said
Kyrios/Κύριος/Lord
tō/τῷ/the
Kyriō/Κυρίῳ/Lord
mou/μου/of me

Do you disagree with any of this?:
mra = Lord/sir
m-r-n = our Lord
m-r-i = my Lord
mrkun = your Lord
mrihun = their lords
MrYa = Master YHWH
kurios = lord/sir, or Lord. Sometimes, 'kurios' is used to render the Aramaic MrYa.

'saying "my" lord, or "our" lord, in talking about "the" lord is helpful in showing a more personal relationship with Him'

These are different remarks, capable of expression in Greek Aramaic and English:
my eyes; our eyes; their eyes; your eyes
Jesus' mother Mary had a husband Joseph who was her 'baal'/lord.
Many people came to Jesus saying 'lord'/sir.
YHWH is 'Lord.'
Jesus' followers called him Lord/Master. Sometimes they spoke of 'our Lord'/'our Master.'
Jesus' followers also called him a rabbi/teacher. Sometimes they referred to him as 'my Teacher,' and sometimes as 'our Teacher.'

Do you think "villages and towns" belongs in Mk 1:38? or merely "places"?

Both the Peshitta and the by-A.D. 175 Diatessaron have "villages and towns."

Mark 1:38 - He said to them, "Let us go somewhere else, to the villages and towns in our immediate vicinity, so that I can preach there also, for that I have come."
to the villages and towns in the area - this is the reading of the Aramean Peshitta. The reading of the Greek NA28, MHT and TR reads: 'to the nearby places'

Diatessaron 7:4
He said unto them, Let us go into the adjacent villages and towns, that I may preach there also; for to this end did I come.

Do you think "ailments" belongs in Mk 3:10?

Neither the Peshitta nor the by-A.D. 175 Diatessaron have it.

Mark 3:10 - For He healed many, so that they fell over Him to touch (but) touch Him.
so that they fell over Him - this is the reading of the Aramean Peshitta. The reading of the Greek NA28, MHT and TR reads: "so that all who had ailments fell over Him."

Diatessaron 8:13
And he healed many, so that they were almost falling on him on account of their seeking to get near him.
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RE: book of Hebrews: better from Greek, or Aramaic? - by DavidFord - 05-11-2020, 12:02 PM

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