Do you think Mk 3:32 should start in English with: "and"? "because"? neither?
How do you think Lk 18:7, Jn 2:13, Jn 1:2-3, Mk 5:21, and Jn 18:25 should be rendered in English?
_Our Translated Gospels: Some of the Evidence_ (1936), 172pp. by Charles Cutler Torrey. On 5-6
https://archive.org/details/OurTranslate...ey/page/n1
The incessant Semitic parataxis creates ambiguity in the Gospels, as in the LXX. Successive clauses in varied mutual relation are likely to be strung together by the ever-repeated conjunction _waw_; usually rendered "and" in the Grk., even where it obviously means "while, when, but, for, although, since," etc. The _circumstantial clause_ thus fails, now and then, to come to its rights.
The first clause of Mk. 3:32 in our Grk. is incorrectly translated and given a false connection. As originally written, it formed the close of the preceding sentence, giving in express terms _the reason why_ Jesus' mother and brothers stood outside and sent word to him, instead of coming in: "_because_ a crowd was settled about him." In the parallel, Lk. 8:19, this is plainly stated. Cf. Gen. 22:12, Heb. and Grk., also Ps. 60:13.
-- Lk. 18:7: "Will not God give justice to his elect, . . . _even if_ he is slow to anger in their behalf?"
-- Jn. 2:13: "_When_ the passover drew near, Jesus went up to Jerusalem."
-- An example of the parataxis without a conjunction: Jn. 1:2 f., "_When_ he was in the beginning with God, all things were made by him."
-- Two other examples, Mk. 5:21 and Jn. 18:25, are described in Exhibit XX, A, F.
Mark 3 (YLT)
https://biblehub.com/mark/3-32.htm
31 Then come do his brethren and mother, and standing without, they sent unto him, calling him,
32 and a multitude was sitting about him, and they said to him, ‘Lo, thy mother and thy brethren without do seek thee.’
_Was the New Testament Really Written in Greek?_
https://pdfslide.net/documents/aramaic-p...-2008.html
PDF http://www.preteristarchive.com/Books/pd...ngreek.pdf
10. For, but or and? – 2Corinthians 2:1 ....
Another Aramaic word which causes problems for translators is Nyd [i.e.: d-i-n] which really has no equivalent in English, but it is more of a "thought-switcher"-- some English words come close to translating it-- like "And, For, But, Now, However"
How do you think Lk 18:7, Jn 2:13, Jn 1:2-3, Mk 5:21, and Jn 18:25 should be rendered in English?
_Our Translated Gospels: Some of the Evidence_ (1936), 172pp. by Charles Cutler Torrey. On 5-6
https://archive.org/details/OurTranslate...ey/page/n1
The incessant Semitic parataxis creates ambiguity in the Gospels, as in the LXX. Successive clauses in varied mutual relation are likely to be strung together by the ever-repeated conjunction _waw_; usually rendered "and" in the Grk., even where it obviously means "while, when, but, for, although, since," etc. The _circumstantial clause_ thus fails, now and then, to come to its rights.
The first clause of Mk. 3:32 in our Grk. is incorrectly translated and given a false connection. As originally written, it formed the close of the preceding sentence, giving in express terms _the reason why_ Jesus' mother and brothers stood outside and sent word to him, instead of coming in: "_because_ a crowd was settled about him." In the parallel, Lk. 8:19, this is plainly stated. Cf. Gen. 22:12, Heb. and Grk., also Ps. 60:13.
-- Lk. 18:7: "Will not God give justice to his elect, . . . _even if_ he is slow to anger in their behalf?"
-- Jn. 2:13: "_When_ the passover drew near, Jesus went up to Jerusalem."
-- An example of the parataxis without a conjunction: Jn. 1:2 f., "_When_ he was in the beginning with God, all things were made by him."
-- Two other examples, Mk. 5:21 and Jn. 18:25, are described in Exhibit XX, A, F.
Mark 3 (YLT)
https://biblehub.com/mark/3-32.htm
31 Then come do his brethren and mother, and standing without, they sent unto him, calling him,
32 and a multitude was sitting about him, and they said to him, ‘Lo, thy mother and thy brethren without do seek thee.’
_Was the New Testament Really Written in Greek?_
https://pdfslide.net/documents/aramaic-p...-2008.html
PDF http://www.preteristarchive.com/Books/pd...ngreek.pdf
10. For, but or and? – 2Corinthians 2:1 ....
Another Aramaic word which causes problems for translators is Nyd [i.e.: d-i-n] which really has no equivalent in English, but it is more of a "thought-switcher"-- some English words come close to translating it-- like "And, For, But, Now, However"