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book of Hebrews: better from Greek, or Aramaic?
When Luke 23:15 was originally written, how do you think it read?

The Peshitta and the by-A.D. 175 Diatessaron have "Herod, for I sent Him to him."

Luke 23:15 (based on Younan) Nor has Herodus, for I sent Him to him
and behold, nothing that is worthy of death has been committed by Him.

Diatessaron, Section L
http://www.earlychristianwritings.com/te...saron.html
[~12] nor yet Herod: for I sent him unto him;
and he hath done nothing for which he should deserve death.

Text Note: Luke 23:15
http://www.jeffriddle.net/2014/09/text-n...-2315.html
I. The issue:
The question here concerns Pilate’s words to the chief priests, rulers, and people regarding his previously sending Jesus for an interview before Herod.
The traditional text reads: “No, nor yet Herod: for I sent you to him [anapempsa gar humas pros auton]….” (KJV).
The modern critical text, however, reads: “No, nor has Herod, for he sent Him back to us [anapempsen gar auton pros hemas]….” (NASB).

So, did Pilate tell them that he had sent them (presumably along with Jesus as his accusers) to Herod, as in the traditional text? Or, did Pilate say that Herod had sent Jesus back to him (presumably after finding no fault worthy of condemnation in him), as in the modern critical text?

II. External Evidence:
The traditional text reading is supported by the following: A, D, N, W, Gamma, Delta, Psi, family 1, 565, 700, 1424, 2542, and the vast majority of Greek manuscripts. It is also found in the Old Latin and in the Haraklean Syriac versions.
The modern critical text reading is supported by the following: p75, Sinaiticus, Vaticanus, K, L, T, Theta, 892, 1241. Among the versions it is found in some Vulgate mss and in the Coptic.

The apparatus of the NA 28 also indicates several other variations, such as:
“For he sent him to you”: family 13, some Vulgate mss;
“He sent him to you”: 579;
“For they sent him to us”: 070, a marginal reading in the Syriac Harklean.

III. Internal Evidence:
In his Textual Commentary, Metzger begins his discussion of this verse by saying, “In the transmission of this clause copyists became hopelessly confused….” (p. 179).
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RE: book of Hebrews: better from Greek, or Aramaic? - by DavidFord - 12-08-2019, 03:24 PM

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