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book of Hebrews: better from Greek, or Aramaic?
When Luke 6:1 was originally written, do you think it had:
“on the second sabbath after the first”?
“on the sabbath”?

Luke 6:1 didn't make it into Tatian's Diatesseron.

The Aramaic Peshitta has merely “on the sabbath”:
Luke 6:1 (based on Younan) Now it happened on the Shabbata while Yeshua was walking in the fields, his students were plucking heads of grain and rubbing them in their hands and eating.

Text Note: Luke 6:1
http://www.jeffriddle.net/2012/12/text-n...ke-61.html
The issue:
The main question here is the whether the verse should include the adjective deuteroprotos in modification of the noun “sabbath.” The traditional text includes the word and the modern critical text omits it. A comparison of English translations reflects this textual difference:

AV (following the traditional text): “And it came to pass on the second sabbath after the first [egeneto de ev sabbato deuteroproto]….”
RSV/ESV (following the modern critical text): “On a sabbath [egeneto de en sabbato]….”

So, did Luke specifically say that when Jesus and his disciples walked through the grain fields it was “the second sabbath after the first,” or did he more generically say that this event happened “on a sabbath”?

External evidence:
Again, the textual evidence follows similar lines as we have seen in previous studies of textual matters in the opening chapters of Luke.
The traditional reading is supported by codices Alexandrinus, C, D, R, Theta, Psi, family 13 (with negligible variations), and the vast majority of extant Greek manuscripts. It also appears in the Old Latin and Syriac Harclean versions. In addition it appears in Epiphanius of Constantia (d. 403 A. D.).
The modern critical reading is supported by p4, Sinaiticus, Vaticanus, L, W, family 1, 33, and 1241. Among the versions it appears in some Old Latin manuscripts and the Syriac Peshitta.
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RE: book of Hebrews: better from Greek, or Aramaic? - by DavidFord - 12-08-2019, 02:12 AM

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