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John 6: 1
#1
Hello everyone --

John 6: 1 (RSV), (NIV), (Younan):

[1] After this Jesus went to the other side of the Sea of Galilee, which is the Sea of Tiber'i-as.

[1] Some time after this, Jesus crossed to the far shore of the Sea of Galilee (that is, the Sea of Tiberias),

[1] After these things went Yeshua...

I caught this one today when I was comparing a few verses against different translations and I request some help, please.

In Mark, we find that Jesus "crossed over" several times (Mark 6: 53, Mark 5: 21, Mark 4: 35).  With more than one translation, John 6: 1 reads "Jesus went...".  I noticed in one translation (NIV) that "Jesus crossed..." and that set off a few bells in my head (Don't tell my psychiatrist, it gets him worried about me...)

Which is it and why?


CW
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#2
Howdy CW...

In the Aramaic NT, it reads thus. "After these things Yeshua went unto the crossing of the sea of Galilee, which is Tiberias."

"unto the crossing of the sea" is a term that means "to the other side of the sea". There were various crossing points where the ships/boats would cross over from harbor to harbor.

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#3
(05-21-2017, 02:48 AM)Thirdwoe Wrote: In the Aramaic NT, it reads thus. "After these things Yeshua went unto the crossing of the sea of Galilee, which is Tiberias."

"unto the crossing of the sea" is a term that means "to the other side of the sea".

Take the rest of the day off, Thirdwoe, you deserve it.  I thank you VERY MUCH for your reply.
Perhaps one follow-up: Analysis of the Markan Passages compared with John shows that "crossing..." is used in both Mark and John, correct? (Mebbe make a note of this for the "Aramaic Primacy" Thread...)

A Great Day!

CW
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#4
The parallel passage in Mark 6:30-34 doesn't use the term "crossing" other than referring to the place they were headed to in the ship/boat as a desert or wilderness region. And when you read it, it seems that it was a fairly short trip to where they were going, and seems that it wasn't all the way across the see of Galilee's middle, but rather up or down the coast line a ways. Notice the wording there in Mark where the people on land noticed what direction they were going and ran along the shore line and arrived there ahead of them.
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#5
Thank you, Thirdwoe!
(For Informational Purposes only: There is a certain "Granularity" at work here.) Teeple (Literary Origins of John) has John 6: 1 as follows:

Redactor:
After these things

Source:
Jesus [arthrous] went away across the Sea of Galilee

Redactor:
of Tiberias [R inserts to explain the earlier name, Sea of Galilee; cf. R in 21: 1]

Now, Teeple was certified Greekie. His work is extremely fascinating. However, note that he passes over "Jesus went..." without a care in the world. It's why I asked the question concerning "Crossing over...". If the term is rewritten into Greek, then something may be lost. ***It might be OK as it is***. I notice other examples: "...You must TURN as a child...". It the meaning is "CHANGE", I believe a possible meaning to the Passage is lost.

It's possible to see Redactors behind every tree. When I see a Passage such as John 6: 1, I need to check to make sure.

THNX,

CW
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#6
In the Greek versions the word that is written πέραν is translated into English in various ways, sometimes "over" or "across" or "to the other side".

So, Jesus departed to the other side of the Sea of Galilee....

In Aramaic the word is ܠܥܒܪܐ which translates "to the crossing" meaning Jesus departed to the other side of the Sea of Galilee...

You have there "went away across the Sea of Galilee." went away=departed, and across=to the other side.

Seems to be saying the same thing.

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