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Law or Name? And how do we say this happend.
#3
The Old Latin (from Sabatier): ... & in nomine ejus gentes sperabunt. (name)
 .. in contrast to ..
Vulgata: ... & legem ejus insulæ exspectabunt (law)

So we have the most ancient Greek and Latin versions + Matthew as witnesses for name.
And the Hebrew and Aramaic versions + Vulgata as witnesses for law.

In Greek the variations would read:
ΚΑΙΕΠΙΤΩΟΝΟΜΑΤΙΑΥΤΟΥΕΘΝΗΕΛΠΙΟΥΣΙΝ (name)
ΚΑΙΤΩΝΟΜΩΑΥΤΟΥΝΗΣΟΙΕΛΠΙΟΥΣΙΝ (law)

The words νομος and ονομα are similar, so one would like to think that a scribal error happened when someone read from a Greek exemplar, but if the scribe copied from Greek to Greek, the addition or excision of επι would need to be explained too.

LEH mentions Numbers 4:27.

LXX: ... καὶ ἐπισκέψῃ αὐτοὺς ἐξ ὀνομάτων πάντα τὰ ἀρτὰ ὑπ᾿ αὐτῶν (by name)
MT:  ופקדתם עלהם במשמרת את כל–משאם

Could משמרת be ambigous enough to cause both readings?
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RE: Law or Name? And how do we say this happend. - by sestir - 09-10-2016, 12:05 PM

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