05-05-2016, 09:22 PM
Thanks Distazo. Please allow me to rephrase my question:
"Whoever then eateth of the bread of [MarYa], and drinketh of his cup, and is not worthy of it, is guilty of the blood of [MarYa] and of his body." (1 Corinthians 11:27)
If MarYa = YHWH, the name of the Father, then how is it that YHWH has a blood and a body? In other words, it would seem that this should be talking about the blood and body of Yeshua--not YHWH. What are your thoughts for why 1Co 11:27 has "MarYa" instead of "Yeshua"?
"Whoever then eateth of the bread of [MarYa], and drinketh of his cup, and is not worthy of it, is guilty of the blood of [MarYa] and of his body." (1 Corinthians 11:27)
If MarYa = YHWH, the name of the Father, then how is it that YHWH has a blood and a body? In other words, it would seem that this should be talking about the blood and body of Yeshua--not YHWH. What are your thoughts for why 1Co 11:27 has "MarYa" instead of "Yeshua"?