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Possible Error in Peshitta 1Co. 5:8? - Leavened Bread
Dear Brother,

I'm happy to respond, but first...

"the "anti-Semitism" bomb, and seem to think that this is about "replacement theology""

This wasn't aimed at you--not even as a hint. It was addressed, politely, to anyone else who (I was inviting) who would come with that perspective. Only as my way of saying, "please don't." But I'm not accusing or hinting that you are such.

"what year are you looking at, and what source are you using? HEBCAL?"

I'm not looking at the year at all--only Scripture, and commentaries that seem to provide legitimate or plausible historic, linguistic context for exegesis. This is another point that I want to make now, which I wasn't going to make before, because I was done with this discussion...

I didn't cite commentaries to mount an "argumentum ad populum," but because they provide *exegesis* of the text. Based on how you responded to me a couple posts ago, it seems evident that you didn't really read what I wrote. And I say that because you didn't address my points at all; you skipped right over them in your last barrage.

Here are the two explanations for Joh 18:28 which I believe would easily reconcile them with the message I take from the synoptics (which I also explained to some level or another, but would be happy to give greater detail). These are two explanations that take into account the historic and linguistic context, which is important for proper, accurate exegesis (i.e. "correctly proclaiming the word of truth)"

1) The so-called "Passover" that the rulers didn't want to get defiled for was the "chagigah"--which nearly a dozen expositors of the text--almost all Christians mind you--explain (from legitimate sources like Talmud, etc.) was on the *15th of Abib,* and followed the true "Passover" on the 14th of Abib. This "chagigah" celebration means that Yeshua was executed the day after the true Passover, that is to say, on the 15th of Abib.

2) Explanation number two, which I also provided above, was that some sources speculate that because of the thousands of lambs that had to be slaughtered, a tradition had evolved whereby the priests would slaughter lambs over both the 14th to the evening of the 15th. Therefore, the rulers may have not eaten their lamb on the 15th, when Yeshua was being tried, but they intended to do so before sundown.

Personally brother, I don't know which answer is correct, but either one of them easily bring Joh 18:28 in line with Luk 22:15, Mat 26:17-20, Mar 14:12-14, and these all indicate (to me) that it was the Torah-based Passover--viz., the one on the 14th of Abib. And by the way, I asked you to give your interpretation of these passages in a previous post, and you never did give them. Why not start there?

So, to your question, I'm not looking at calendars or years. Why would I do that? The Scripture is the authority, and it needs to be properly interpreted. I made allowance for the fact that both I, and the commentators that I cited, could be wrong. But ironically, you have demeaned them by calling their work "uninspired," which suggests that your interpretation is the "inspired" one. I would caution against that attitude.

What I've done is to present an exegetical argument from the Scripture, which I believe to be sound. I could be wrong, but your tactics of responding by repeating opinions and phrases like "the inspired Scriptures say you're wrong" (or something to that effect) don't really help me. And believe, me, I would like you to help me. You blessed me with sharing some Scripture passages, but I don't believe that your conclusion follows the evidence of *all* the passages. And I can say this, especially because you never responded to me in regards to Luk 22:15, Mat 26:17-20, Mar 14:12-14.

But if you desire to continue, I will ask that you *don't respond* until you have gone back and carefully read what I wrote in the previous posts on this issue. I know that the temptation is there to want to shoot off a quick reply, but it reallly shows that you just want to be right, and not explore the issue from an appropriate angle. It is rather obvious that you didn't read my arguments, or viewpoints regarding Joh 18:28 and Joh 19:14. Why would I want to continue with you if you aren't even reading what I wrote?

Now, Yeshua himself indicated that the Scriptures must be *both* known and then interpreted properly. "What is written in the Torah? How do you read it?" (Luk 10:26). "If he called them 'alahey,' to whom the word of God came, and the Scripture cannot be loosened," (Joh 10:35) ""You are mistaken, not knowing the Scriptures, nor the power of God." (Mat 22:29).

So if you'd like to continue, please do so with minimal verbiage. Please just quote the Scripture verse, in whatever translation you want, or the Peshitta itself that you so love, and then give your interpretation of it. Say something like, "This passage shows that it must have been before or after..." and so on. But honestly, I put a considerable amount of time and effort in addressing you that exact way in my previous posts.

I'm not interesting in getting the last word, or being right. I'm interesting in attaining the truth. If you find fault with my argument, after you reread it carefully, then please respond in the fashion above. Otherwise, I just don't think it will be helpful for me. But if you just want the last word, please go ahead and have it.


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RE: Possible Error in Peshitta 1Co. 5:8? - Leavened Bread - by Thomas - 12-09-2015, 05:44 PM

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