Thread Rating:
  • 0 Vote(s) - 0 Average
  • 1
  • 2
  • 3
  • 4
  • 5
Possible Error in Peshitta 1Co. 5:8? - Leavened Bread
(10-18-2015, 12:23 AM)gregoryfl Wrote: This is, I believe, actually a case for the accuracy of the Peshitta, partially because it is the more difficult reading. Here is what I personally see, as one who is Torah observant:

Although referencing the feast of מצה, I see him doing so as a principle of conduct in everyday life, not the specific feast itself. He specifically says in the previous verse that they are unleavened. However, their conduct was not matching who they truly were, hence the admonishment to clear out the old leaven (the carnal behavior they were exhibiting).

The subject matter has to do with their behavior, and its affect on the body of Messiah, and so when he said to observe the feast, he was reminding them of the 7 day feast in which unleavened bread was not to be found among them, that their behavior was to match the reality of who they were (unleavened) all the time.

So, because he was referencing behavior and its affects, he necessarily tells them guard their unleavened condition (keep the feast) and let their behavior (symbolized by leaven) not be what they were exhibiting, but of sincerity and truth, which would match who they were. In other words, let sincerity and truth be like leaven to have it affect the entire body in what is wholesome and good.

The very fact that he is telling these believers about this feast tells me that they were observing it, so it was a fitting reminder to them that the feast is much more than simple days on a calendar to do certain physical things, but contains lessons in life to live every day.

On a side note, I do not see scripture teaching, as is commonly taught, that leaven itself pictures sin. In itself it is neutral. I believe Yeshua used it to picture something negative that infects others, such as the teachings of the Pharisees and Sadducees. He also used it to picture the influence and growth of the Kingdom of God, as you pointed out, which is positive. I believe Paul used it here in Corinthians to denote both something negative and positive that infects others.

This answer may not satisfy, but it is again what comes to me in looking at the text.


Dear Ronen,

I very much enjoyed your reply, and I follow your reasoning to a good extent here.  Frankly, it's refreshing to hear your observant viewpoint Smile .

Surely, Paul's message was metaphorical, and not merely a teaching on how to observe a feast.  I'm aware of that, and am by no means basing a theological stipulation regarding the Peshitta's reading on a stiff interpretation such as that.  No, Paul is definitely being metaphorical, as you pointed out.

And yes, I agree that leaven is neither good nor bad in itself, which is proved from passages like Mat 13:33.  Therefore, except for the fact that Paul's metaphor is specifically based on the context of the terms "Passover" (פצחא) and "feast" (עדעדא), I agree that "leaven" could be a good symbol just as a bad one.

However, in the case of the Corinthians, it was a bad one, based on 1Co. 5:6-7... "Your boasting -> leaven" and "you are (supposed to be)... unleavened."  So based on Paul's usage in the first two verses, we know that his exhortation is to be unleavened.  At least, he appears to be heading in this direction.

Still, at this point I admit that if Paul wasn't staying within the specific framework of the Feast, which explicitly forbids leaven to even be seen--much less eaten--then I grant that he could have made a sudden switch to say "be leaven of goodness."  That would have been just fine.

But after looking at it one more time, as you know, the words  "Passover" (פצחא) and "feast" (עדעדא) are immediately followed by the instruction to "be leaven (khemira)..." in verse 8.

I just can't shake it, but it is a mystery that I'm still open to hearing other perspectives.  Now, I do remember reading at one point--I think from Thirdwoe--that one manuscript Etheridge used had patira instead of khemira, but I don't know if that is the case.

Best case scenario: I'm completely wrong and dropped a yodh somewhere along the line, and the Peshitta remains completely error free Tongue .  But I hold that this one looks to be in favor of the Greek--not as the earliest reading, which as you know, can't be deduced from this situation, but from a theologically sound standpoint.


Messages In This Thread
RE: Possible Error in Peshitta 1Co. 5:8? - Leavened Bread - by Thomas - 10-18-2015, 03:23 AM

Forum Jump:

Users browsing this thread: 1 Guest(s)