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1 Timothy 3:2
I have a curious question on 1 Timothy 3:2.  It is often translated "husband of one wife", but it seems that this could also be translated "husband of a glad/rejoicing wife".  I am such a novice at this - I could be so far off that an experienced translator may find this funny.  If I am misunderstanding, could someone please explain this to me?
Shlama Aineo,

I take it that you are seeing it like what you see here perhaps, in the top right corner?

חדא (to be glad)

Shlama Ronen,
That is correct. It seems to me the vowel marks are the only things that distinguish between the translation of the words: "one, singular, particular" or "to be glad". To be fair, it seems that "to be glad" is not the translation of the word we typically find in the Bible, but it still makes me curious how one would know which is the correct translation. I understand that when translating, one makes a judgement call based upon the context and the typical translations of a word, but in this case it seems that either translation would be appropriate.


Another example is Titus 1:6, which uses a slightly different form of the word (as I see it) and translates it as "one" (, yet in Luke 5:15 this word is translated "rejoicing" (
Yes, if you were to read the text without vowel markings, you would need to look at the context. I understand what you are seeing though. Let's look at it without the vowel points. Word order helps us here. In Semitic language, modifiers of nouns (in your case, 'rejoicing or glad or joyous') come AFTER the noun it modifies, not before it. While we speak of a 'glad wife', in Semitic language they would say it as 'wife glad'. One familiar greeting we share in the morning with others is בוקר טוב. This literally is 'morning good'. In English it is 'good morning'.

Perfect - that is just the type of answer I was hoping to get. Thank you.
You are most welcome my friend. It is good to see you looking with a keen eye at the text as you are doing. I am still much in the process of learning myself. Smile

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