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I'm extremely new to this forum, but have been following the subject for a couple years now. I'm completely an amateur, and fascinated by the simplicity of the idea of Aramaic Primacy.

My question: It seems that the Aramaic 'namusa' (the Law) is considered to be a loan word from the Greek, but could it be the other way around? Could the 'musa' part be derived from Moses? Please direct me to the proper thread if this has already been discussed. Thanks!
John Warren

I am by no means a Syriac or even Aramaic expert. However, in this case, the Syriac form of Moshe (Moses) is meem-waw-sheen-alap (Musha) whereas the spelling of namusa is nun-meem-waw-simkat-alap. So Moses has a sheen, namusa has a simkat.

In addition to this, if my understanding is correct, nomos as a Greek word was used long before the Syriac dialect even came to be. I am unaware if other earlier Aramaic dialects use the word namusa. This would be a question for Steve Caruso.

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