03-01-2015, 10:52 PM
Shlama Searcher,
I would direct you to the polysemy evidences collected in the study shared at the following link:
<!-- l --><a class="postlink-local" href="http://www.peshitta.org/forum/viewtopic.php?f=9&t=4022">viewtopic.php?f=9&t=4022</a><!-- l -->
The Aramaic Peshitta NT shows exactly the same type of Janus Parallel as the Hebrew. What does the Greek show? Nothing. Why not? Would you dare assert that a translation of a source-text could viably possess more depth than the source-text itself? Is information ever lost or gained in the process of translating from one language to another?
Please refute these examples from the link based on a textual evidence basis. If you cannot, you have some viable evidence for Aramaic Primacy.
Blessings,
Jeremy
I would direct you to the polysemy evidences collected in the study shared at the following link:
<!-- l --><a class="postlink-local" href="http://www.peshitta.org/forum/viewtopic.php?f=9&t=4022">viewtopic.php?f=9&t=4022</a><!-- l -->
The Aramaic Peshitta NT shows exactly the same type of Janus Parallel as the Hebrew. What does the Greek show? Nothing. Why not? Would you dare assert that a translation of a source-text could viably possess more depth than the source-text itself? Is information ever lost or gained in the process of translating from one language to another?
Please refute these examples from the link based on a textual evidence basis. If you cannot, you have some viable evidence for Aramaic Primacy.
Blessings,
Jeremy