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....As it is used in the letter to the Hebrews
The Greek is fairly unambiguous, right? Repentance means repentance, ie., the act of repenting. Is there any ambiguity in the Peshitta?
Thanks
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Hi,
Any language has homonyms and synonyms and you cannot just compare words which is comparing apples and bananas.
But especially Semitic languages, such as Hebrew, have words that depending on the context can mean different things.
It's interesting to see that the Greek, depending on the version, Byzantine or Alexandrian roots, reflect those different meaning as the same Aramaic word has been translated to two different Greek words.
For example, 1 Corinthians 13:3 has two types of translation 'that I might boast' or 'that I might burn', the translator has to choose which Greek word he prefers. It happens to be that there is one single Aramaic word, which can mean both 'boast' or 'burn'.
But to answer your Q: the Aramaic has 'tyab?ta' which means returning home or idiomatically repentance.
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Is the same word, 'tyab?ta', used in James 5:19?
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No, just idle curiosity. Thanks for the reply. I was half expecting you to tell me "no, but 5:20 does."