02-07-2015, 08:49 PM
Thirdwoe Wrote:Since the synoptic's indicate it was about 2 days before the Feast began, not 6 days, when Yeshua arrived in the area, it seems to me that its best to render it as it's given in the text, literally "before the six days of the Pesha", so as not to cause a contradiction in the text.
If its rendered "six days before the Pesha", then the proclitic that's present in the text must be ignored in translation. I wonder if there another instance like this one, were "of the Pesha" is rendered "the Pesha" in English, ignoring the proclitic "of" in the text, or is this a unique wording?
Also, notice how the SP (Old Scratch) has it given. It may be more an interpretation there.
Shlama,
Chuck
Shlama,
Yes, those are worthy details to note!
Every instance of the Dalet proclitic used in conjunction with this term requires that the Dalet be translated, in my opinion. I don't see a good reason not to translate it here.
Jeremy