01-13-2015, 08:59 PM
sestir Wrote:distazo Wrote:Why would scribes invent wordplays while translating from Greek?
Because Yeshua spoke Aramaic and because they may have believed that he used wordplays frequently. If this happened say between 260 and 300 CE, in Edessa or Antioch, couldn't they have had sources beside the four gospels that documented wordplays in Aramaic?
Still, that is tampering. I don't think it is possible to know which wordplays were used, after 200 years. It is very likely they, as the apostles could write (Acts 15 also shows that), simply wrote down what Yeshua said.
The sample where I wrote about 'do not hang earrings to dogs' even does not work in Syriac/Assyrian dialect. So, no scribe could have 'inserted' that willfully.