Primacy Proofs Refuted (Six and counting)

[Thomas]

True that scatter is not the same as 'destroy'.
Still, I believe Marc 9:49 contains a wordplay which only works in the Peshitta.

Thank you, and perhaps I will be more interested in wordplays if I can get past my main objective now: but I presently exclude wordplays as solid proof for Peshitta primacy, simply because from a logical standpoint a scribe could--if knowledgable enough--invent Aramaic wordplays as he translated from the Greek into Aramaic.

As unlikely as it may seem--especially if you claim to have hundreds of examples from the Peshitta manuscript --it is still a possibility that a scribe (maybe like Luke) could have invented wordplays from Greek into Aramaic, if he knew the language enough. Consider it "artistic flair," or like targumming from one language into another.

We know that the apostles didn't quote the Tanakh (OT) verbatim in many cases, so they were apparently in the habit of targumming from pre-existing texts. What would necessarily keep them from inventing Aramaic puns and wordplays while translating from another language to form the Peshitta NT?

Again, I'm simply presenting the logical possibilities, and the reason why I prefer to analyze any internal evidence that necessarily suggests that the Peshitta came before the Greek manuscripts. I'm interested in authority right now.

But yes, if you claim to have hundreds of wordplays, please feel free to convince me and send me some in a personal message. I would be grateful for those that you deem convincing, with all sincerity. Thank you.