12-06-2014, 08:16 AM
Shlama Akhi Younan,
Recently I read the book The History of the Qur'anic Text from Revelation to Compilation, A Comparative Study with the Old and New Testaments by M.M. Al-Azami
On page 119 is said that
My question: is it true that the Arabic script not influenced by Syriac/Aramaic as Theodor Noldeke and J. Starcky theory? is the statement of Healy and Smith above true?
Thank you in advanced
Tawdi.
Recently I read the book The History of the Qur'anic Text from Revelation to Compilation, A Comparative Study with the Old and New Testaments by M.M. Al-Azami
On page 119 is said that
Quote:the Raquush tombstone in Madaa'in saleh dated to the year 162 after Bosra (corresponding to 267 C.E). Both Cantineau and Gruendler catalogue it as 'Nabataean text' ... O'Conner describes it as an eccentric mixture of Nabataean and Arabic ... Blau labels it a border dialect and Diem assigns it to a Nabatean-Hijazi sub-group. In their 1989 paper, Healy and Smith hailed it as the earliest dated Arabic document
My question: is it true that the Arabic script not influenced by Syriac/Aramaic as Theodor Noldeke and J. Starcky theory? is the statement of Healy and Smith above true?
Thank you in advanced
Tawdi.