Mark 5:41

[coramdeo]

How would you answer someone you says that the Greek was original because Mark quotes the aramaic and then translate the words into greek?

The exact wording of the person was "Jesus Himself spoke in Aramaic, but the Scriptures were written in Koine Greek. If you deny this, then explain this to me: "Taking the child by the hand, He said to her, "Talitha kum!" (which translated means, "Little girl, I say to you, get up!")." (Mark 5:41) Why would Mark translate the Aramaic into Greek if it was written in Aramaic?"


Blessings,
Michael

[ScorpioSniper2]

The answer would simply be that the Greek redactor chose at that point to transliterate the Aramaic. If the Greek was the original, why would Mark feel the need to preserve the Aramaic word spoken by Jesus in that particular place and not in others? The Aramaic Peshitta of Mark 5:41 says:

W'akhad b'aideh d'talitha w'amar leh talitha qum.

"And he took the hand of the young girl and said to her, Young girl, arise."- Aramaic-English Interlinear New Testament

Another sign of an Aramaic original in this verse is that some Greek manuscripts transliterate the Aramaic phrase in question as "Talitha qum" and others as "Talitha qumi" (compare the King James and Holman Christian Standard versions). The differences arises from the fact that unless an Aramaic word has no other vowels (like bi/"in me" or li/"to me"), the final yodh ("i") is silent.

[coramdeo]

Thank so much. That was what I though, at least the first part of what you said but was having trouble putting it into words.......
Thoughts to words don't always comply... <!-- s --><img src="{SMILIES_PATH}/blush.gif" alt="" title="Blush" /><!-- s -->

Blessings,

[ScorpioSniper2]

Anytime! Trust me, I know how you feel! <!-- s --><img src="{SMILIES_PATH}/poketoungeb.gif" alt="" title="Poke Tounge" /><!-- s -->