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Matthew 22:41-46 - and now i believe.
Studying the Peshitta has mostly been revealing, fruitful, truthful, and more, but as it is on our search for Truth, some questions are harder to answer than others. For me, Matthew 22:41-46 was one of them.

From KJV (Greek versions):
"While the Pharisees were gathered together,
Jesus asked them, Saying,
What think ye of Christ?
whose son is he?

They say unto him,
The Son of David.

He saith unto them,
How then doth David in spirit call him Lord, saying,

The LORD said unto my Lord,
Sit thou on my right hand,
till I make thine enemies thy footstool?

If David then call him Lord, how is he his son?

And no man was able to answer him a word,
neither durst any man from that day forth ask him any more questions."

From Lamsa (for clarity i made all occurrences of MarYa obvious):
"While the Pharisees were gathered together,
Jesus asked them, And he said,
What do you say concerning the Christ?
whose son is he?

They said to him,
son of David.

He said to them,
How is it then that David through the Spirit calls him MarYa?
For he said,

MarYa said to my Lord,
Sit at my right hand,
until I put your enemies under your feet.

If David then calls him MarYa,
how can he be his son?

And no man was able to answer him,
and from that day no man dared to question him"

Now, at first this is quite confusing, and it troubled me, as on the one hand, *if* Jesus' interpretation was correct, it would make so much more sense that "from that day no man dared to question him". On the other hand, if it was incorrect, it would make no sense, and so there would have to be an error in the text of Matthew (else the Pharisees may just have said "we do not follow your logic"). However, Jesus' interpretation does not seem to make sense at first, and reading all of Ps. 110 does not help much - as long as you read a corrupted text that is. Yes, Ps. 110 as most Christians read it is corrupted, and that corruption is recorded in the Jewish Massorah. The corruption is found in v. 5:

The Lord at thy right hand shall strike through kings in the day of his wrath.
"The Lord" (Heb. Adonai) originally read YHWH - and all of a sudden it all makes sense.

Where i found it first (Page 55-56):
<!-- m --><a class="postlink" href=""> ... w+22:43-46</a><!-- m -->

Further Info on the passages where YHWH was substituted with Adonai or Elohim:
<!-- m --><a class="postlink" href=""></a><!-- m -->

Not only does this show that the rendering of the Peshitta is accurate, it also makes it extremely unlikely the text is a translation, as no translator would have been aware of the extended context, and no translator would have been willing to create such a difficult reading.

And now i believe.

And this is just in: Counting the corruptions (assuming the list is correct and complete), the 6.828 occurrences of YHWH in the Hebrew text now add up to - 7.000.
Thanks for sharing this, Akhi Andrej.

Do you mean to say "Kurios" doesn't quite cut it? <!-- sSmile --><img src="{SMILIES_PATH}/smile.gif" alt="Smile" title="Smile" /><!-- sSmile -->

Oh wait, Christ spoke these words in Aramaic, right? That would give the GPs the convenient excuse that the evangelist himself made the wording in Greek vague. Any excuse to save their investment in the Greek.


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