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The Divine name substituted in translations
#1
It is my understanding that the Jews did not substitute for the divine name in the Hebrew language, but substituted it in translations. Since MarYah is substituted in the Peshitta for the Divine name, is that an indication that the Aramaic text is a translation rather than considered the Hebrew language?
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#2
They didn't substitute it when written but they did substitute it when spoken. The vowels for "E" and "A" in "YeHoVaH" stood for "Elohim" and "Adonai", which signified to pronounce it as one of those two words instead of pronouncing the Divine Name (most likely pronounced as "Yahweh"). I think it was around the time of Jesus when the Rabbinical ban on using the name of God began. They never banned the use of the first syllable "Yah". "MarYah" is simply a combination of "Mar" (Lord) and "Yah" (short form of "Yahweh"). It isn't completely a substitution. The divine name was written as "Ye" at the beginning of Hebrew names (like "Yehoshophat" instead of "Yahoshophat"). They did it this way because it was easier to pronounce.
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