01-13-2014, 01:37 AM
Sarah Wrote:Would someone who knows Aramaic/Syriac be wiling to translate the first half of James 3:9 word for word with MarYah from the Peshitta.
Lamasa translates it "with it we bless the Lord and Father . . . " With the divine name it is awkward, "With it we bless MarYah and Father . . "
Does Aramaic use Father without the article like that when speaking about Him?
Greek has our/the Lord and the Father
Are there articles or pronouns in the Aramaic? OR does it really not have them like Lamasa's translation indicates.
I finally got Tackston's Grammar, so I will eventually be able to figure these trivial things out on my own-Yay! <!-- s--><img src="{SMILIES_PATH}/smile.gif" alt="
Sarah
Shlama Sarah,
In Aramaic, the definite is indicated by the state of the noun being Emphatic. The noun "Father" is the Emphatic form, so it's "the Father".
Also bear in mind, "MarYah" is not the Divine Name (although the title contains the shortened form of It) any more than "HalleluYah" is the divine name. (or, EliYah, YeremiYah, etc.)
MarYah is a title just like Abba is a title. The proper translation of James 3:9 is similar to Lamsa's version - although you could improve it by translating a bit more loosely: "With it we bless the LORD and Father, Yah." If you wanted to be ultra-literal, it's "with it we bless LORD-YAH and The Father", which comes across as awkward in English.
When translating from Semitic to Indo-European tongues you often need to re-arrange word order to make it smoother in translation.
+Shamasha