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2 Corinthians 5:21 - sin ... offering ?
#2
It's defiantly speaking of The Messiah there...

Have you considered 1 Peter 2:24, and what it says about our sins being being put to death in His body on the Cross? How did our sins get into His body?

Or Romans 8:3...how did God condemn our sins
Quote:in His flesh
? Or in Galatians 3:13, how is it that He
Quote:became a curse
, to redeem us from the curse of the Law?

As to the translation being justified with the added "offering" as in sin offering, Magiera says that the 2nd instance of the word "sin" is an "antanaclasis" a stylistic scheme of repeating a single word or phrase, but with a different meaning, the 2nd instance having the meaning of "sin offering".

I'm not sure if that was Shlikha Paul's intent, but it may be an answer to the question.

As to translation having another possible reading, while it could be translated the usual way, as I look closely at the Aramaic text here, it seems to me that a possible rendering of the verse in English could be thus:

"For, He who had no sin, acted on account of our sin, so that, we would be the righteousness of Alaha, in Him."

If others more adept at translation and more aware of the rules, can check to see if this is a possible reading, please do so, as I don't want to misrepresent what it can't possibly say.


Shlama,
Chuck

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Re: 2 Corinthians 5:21 - sin ... offering ? - by Thirdwoe - 01-05-2014, 05:31 AM

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