09-06-2014, 11:56 PM
The Greek Codex Koridethi (9th c.) has the phrase just as in John 20:21 except for the word Apostelo = sent, which is pempo in John. NA27 says there are also "other" (unspecified) manuscripts that have the reading, a website i found lists Koridethi and "1604, Syr. Pesh. (hiant Syr. S. and C.), Arm. (hiat. Orig.Mt.)". i cannot find any information on 1604 other than "4th century". Of course the Armenian text is interesting as well.
Definition of Apostelo:
<!-- m --><a class="postlink" href="http://biblehub.com/greek/649.htm">http://biblehub.com/greek/649.htm</a><!-- m -->
Definition of pempo:
<!-- m --><a class="postlink" href="http://biblehub.com/greek/3992.htm">http://biblehub.com/greek/3992.htm</a><!-- m -->
Codex Koridethi variants (search for Mt.xxviii.18.):
<!-- m --><a class="postlink" href="http://www.katapi.org.uk/4Gospels/Ch4.htm">http://www.katapi.org.uk/4Gospels/Ch4.htm</a><!-- m -->
Matthew is the Gospel that most likely was written in Aramaic, seeing as many early Church Fathers witness to this. The fact that the phrase is found "only" in the Aramaic does not tell us which one is the original and which is the translation. It seems that whoever translated what, it was a singular effort. It may very well be a missing line, the length of the phrase makes that possible. To me that seems at least as likely as an added line.
Yes, it is pretty common for Jesus to "repeat" His words. But i can't think of any good demonstrative examples, so maybe someone else can. The only one coming to mind would be Matthew 22:41-46, which is Jesus speaking to the pharisees privately. He asked almost the same question to the people in the Temple in Mark 12:35-37 + Luke 20:41-44 (the difference being that in Mk and Lk he is asking why Messiah is called "Lord" (Ps. 110:1), whereas in Mt. He is asking why He is called LORD (Ps. 110:5)).
Definition of Apostelo:
<!-- m --><a class="postlink" href="http://biblehub.com/greek/649.htm">http://biblehub.com/greek/649.htm</a><!-- m -->
Definition of pempo:
<!-- m --><a class="postlink" href="http://biblehub.com/greek/3992.htm">http://biblehub.com/greek/3992.htm</a><!-- m -->
Codex Koridethi variants (search for Mt.xxviii.18.):
<!-- m --><a class="postlink" href="http://www.katapi.org.uk/4Gospels/Ch4.htm">http://www.katapi.org.uk/4Gospels/Ch4.htm</a><!-- m -->
Matthew is the Gospel that most likely was written in Aramaic, seeing as many early Church Fathers witness to this. The fact that the phrase is found "only" in the Aramaic does not tell us which one is the original and which is the translation. It seems that whoever translated what, it was a singular effort. It may very well be a missing line, the length of the phrase makes that possible. To me that seems at least as likely as an added line.
Yes, it is pretty common for Jesus to "repeat" His words. But i can't think of any good demonstrative examples, so maybe someone else can. The only one coming to mind would be Matthew 22:41-46, which is Jesus speaking to the pharisees privately. He asked almost the same question to the people in the Temple in Mark 12:35-37 + Luke 20:41-44 (the difference being that in Mk and Lk he is asking why Messiah is called "Lord" (Ps. 110:1), whereas in Mt. He is asking why He is called LORD (Ps. 110:5)).