09-06-2014, 10:04 PM
This is a very interesting comment! Thanks.
Does this suggest that Matthew's Gospel was written in Hebrew and then translated into Aramaic and Greek? - The Peshitta interpolating the phrase into Matthew from John's Gospel? - The interpolation would provide the complete and true sense of our Lord's words - the 'true sense' as opposed to a literal translation being a characteristic of the Aramaic versions, as I understand, but not of the Greek versions, which tend to be more literal?
With respect to matters of primacy, I am still in the process of considering the evidence.
Does this suggest that Matthew's Gospel was written in Hebrew and then translated into Aramaic and Greek? - The Peshitta interpolating the phrase into Matthew from John's Gospel? - The interpolation would provide the complete and true sense of our Lord's words - the 'true sense' as opposed to a literal translation being a characteristic of the Aramaic versions, as I understand, but not of the Greek versions, which tend to be more literal?
With respect to matters of primacy, I am still in the process of considering the evidence.