12-09-2013, 02:16 AM
Thanks for that reply, Shamasha. I have noticed that throughout the Peshitta, this switch from the two terms happen often.
Here is another reply they made, when I posted your statement about the decade long challenge...it wasn't an error in translation from a supposed Greek original, but... they said.
"I have just realized that I may have already answered that challenge in my statement above.
Now I cannot read Aramaic (not even as poorly as I can read Greek or Hebrew), BUT in answer to your challenge,
I will say that ANY of the Aramaic verses that match the known LXX quotes and illusions over the Hebrew, would indicate your text was of Greek Origin. They would not write an Aramaic letter to churches already using Greek Scriptures when we know they were already speaking greek.
for example: mary the virgin - if the aramaic text has may the young women, that would indicate hebrew origin, if it is mary the westernised virgin or OT kjv - who hadn't *known* a man - that would be lxx origin.
and here we probably run into the same issues - there is no set lexicon for Aramaic, so Aramaic primacists are free to say what they like knowing that no one could prove them wrong hence, the challenge becomes null and void anyway."
.
Here is another reply they made, when I posted your statement about the decade long challenge...it wasn't an error in translation from a supposed Greek original, but... they said.
"I have just realized that I may have already answered that challenge in my statement above.
Now I cannot read Aramaic (not even as poorly as I can read Greek or Hebrew), BUT in answer to your challenge,
I will say that ANY of the Aramaic verses that match the known LXX quotes and illusions over the Hebrew, would indicate your text was of Greek Origin. They would not write an Aramaic letter to churches already using Greek Scriptures when we know they were already speaking greek.
for example: mary the virgin - if the aramaic text has may the young women, that would indicate hebrew origin, if it is mary the westernised virgin or OT kjv - who hadn't *known* a man - that would be lxx origin.
and here we probably run into the same issues - there is no set lexicon for Aramaic, so Aramaic primacists are free to say what they like knowing that no one could prove them wrong hence, the challenge becomes null and void anyway."
.