Aramaic Primacy in the East

[ScorpioSniper2]

In any case, it's not up to *me* to convince you that the word "yamtha" is appropriate for the context. It is up to *you* to convince me why an Aramaic translator would translate the same Greek work differently in v.19 than he would in v.18, v.16, v.22, v.25, etc. You've given me no indication whatsoever that any sort of misreading of the Greek grammar caused the alleged "mistake" in the Aramaic.

Agreed. If it is the same context, why would a translator use more than one word to translate a Greek word? It is possible that a translator would do so of course, but not as likely.