12-20-2013, 09:06 PM
Thirdwoe Wrote:Shamasha Paul, is Matthew 14:23-34 speaking of the same event, or a different one, and if the same, is there any distinction made there in Matthew's account, in the wording of "water", as is seen in the passage of John's account? It also looks like another form of the word is used there in Matthew for "water", why is that?
Is Jesus said to have walked on the water two times, or just once in the Gospel's?
Shlama,
Chuck
Shlama Akhi,
It is the exact same event, including the feeding of the multitudes and the location. Matthew simply uses the term "water" ("maya") in Aramaic, whereas John used "Yama/Yamtha". Note that the GNT uses "sea" in all instances in both Matthew and John.
+Shamasha