12-20-2013, 07:03 AM
Although not quite on topic, I just wanted to share one finding which shows that there are small mistakes in the text, which I consider anyway, the best source for any NT translation in the human world.
This works for both the east and the western scripts.
So, this won't stir up the discussion which text is better east or west <!-- s
--><img src="{SMILIES_PATH}/smile.gif" alt="" title="Smile" /><!-- s -->
There are 2 witnesses that show that John 6:19 in the Peshit(a)/(o) has a spell error.
* The Greek Text (talassa=sea)
* The Context in the peshitta (John 6:25)
What is the problem in John 6:19. Peshitta has yamta which -should- be translated as lake. However, verse 25 has yama, which means 'sea'. The Greek however, uses consistently the same word in 19 and 25.
Just in case some one would say: 'yamta goes either way'. Well, if it does, why do Murdock and Etheridge consistantly translate it as 'lake', and why does the context use 2 different words?
My claim that the Peshitta is not a faultless copy of the original text is thereby proven <!-- s --><img src="{SMILIES_PATH}/smile.gif" alt="" title="Smile" /><!-- s -->
A small theory: The Khabouris and the Peshitto text, are a copy of the same branch. Probably the origin text, was damaged at John 6:19 therefore, the copyists had to guess and the khabouris rarely differs from the Peshitto text but here it does.
This works for both the east and the western scripts.
So, this won't stir up the discussion which text is better east or west <!-- s
--><img src="{SMILIES_PATH}/smile.gif" alt="" title="Smile" /><!-- s -->There are 2 witnesses that show that John 6:19 in the Peshit(a)/(o) has a spell error.
* The Greek Text (talassa=sea)
* The Context in the peshitta (John 6:25)
What is the problem in John 6:19. Peshitta has yamta which -should- be translated as lake. However, verse 25 has yama, which means 'sea'. The Greek however, uses consistently the same word in 19 and 25.
Just in case some one would say: 'yamta goes either way'. Well, if it does, why do Murdock and Etheridge consistantly translate it as 'lake', and why does the context use 2 different words?
My claim that the Peshitta is not a faultless copy of the original text is thereby proven <!-- s
--><img src="{SMILIES_PATH}/smile.gif" alt="" title="Smile" /><!-- s -->A small theory: The Khabouris and the Peshitto text, are a copy of the same branch. Probably the origin text, was damaged at John 6:19 therefore, the copyists had to guess and the khabouris rarely differs from the Peshitto text but here it does.