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1 Corinthians 11
#1
Lately I have been intrigued with 1 Corinthians 11:10, particularly the phrase "because of the angels", and I have yet to gain a good feeling that I understand what this verse is saying. However, I came across a site the other day, <!-- m --><a class="postlink" href="http://williamwelty.com/docs_rethinking_the_veil.htm">http://williamwelty.com/docs_rethinking_the_veil.htm</a><!-- m -->, that presents a totally different opinion on this verse (and the passage). The author's opinion is that some of the interrogative statements in this passage should have been declarative statements. An example is verse 13 - the author states, "Our clue to understanding Paul's intention in I Corinthians 2:11-16 is found in verse thirteen. The interrogative sense of the question ?Is it proper for a woman to pray to God uncovered?? should instead be rendered as the declarative ?It is proper for a woman to pray to God with loosened hair.?". Keeping in mind, he is approaching this from a Greek perspective, and I am convinced that the NT was written in Aramaic, which is why I am posing this question here. From an Aramaic perspective, does this man's argument make any sense? Despite my belief in Aramaic primacy, I am but an infant in my ability to understand Aramaic writing, so I am hoping one of the experts here will look at this website and this passage of scripture and share their thoughts on it.

Thanks in advance for any help.

Steve
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#2
As I read it, the Aramaic text in a literal English rendering reads thus: "Because of this, the woman is obligated that the authority be on her head, because of the Angels."

Shlama,
Chuck
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#3
Thanks Chuck. Would you mind giving your thoughts on verse 13? Could this actually be a question?
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#4
Hi aineo,

I am not an Aramaic scholar but this verse must be read as a question if we read context.
Verse 5 says:

"And every woman who prayeth or prophesieth having her head uncovered, dishonoureth her head, for she is similar to one whose head is shaven."

Since God in our days, clearly blesses meetings where our spiritual sisters do prophecy and pray without additional covering, I think that Paul must have had specific reasons to write this, maybe it was because of some Greek culture where women were godesses being the reason that Paul explained that the woman was (created) out of the man (Adam).
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#5
Thanks distazo, I actually posed my question wrong, but you were able to answer anyhow - I am trying to determine if the sentence context of v 13 could be declarative rather than interrogative. You may have hit on the answer with your statement though. The author who I referenced claims that in the Greek the word for "head uncovered" in v. 5 should be translated "hair unloosened". I missed this in my study of the Aramaic, and it seems that this isn't an option for Aramaic translation.

The man who authored the site I referenced writes very academically, and my head starts spinning after reading a short bit of it. Combine that with trying to understand what the Aramaic verbiage is saying and I become almost useless quick.
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#6
aineo Wrote:Thanks distazo, I actually posed my question wrong, but you were able to answer anyhow - I am trying to determine if the sentence context of v 13 could be declarative rather than interrogative. You may have hit on the answer with your statement though. The author who I referenced claims that in the Greek the word for "head uncovered" in v. 5 should be translated "hair unloosened". I missed this in my study of the Aramaic, and it seems that this isn't an option for Aramaic translation.

The man who authored the site I referenced writes very academically, and my head starts spinning after reading a short bit of it. Combine that with trying to understand what the Aramaic verbiage is saying and I become almost useless quick.

There is a lot going on even by Hebrew/Greek scholars who make the most fantastic claims misusing their title.

Others do a lot to weaken Pauls strong statements about homosexuality and other issues. They even dare to explain that he meant something else.

To me Corintians 11 is quite clear. He meant is as he wrote. There is no need to weaken his opinion.
Sure, you are right to research the issue and even turn to the Peshitta.
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