Semitic Syntax: Not Strong Evidence?

[Paul Younan]

Nice post, this is Master Yoda. Witty it is!

Akhi, Jews (and Assyrians) have lived in Greece for over two thousand years. No one speaks Greek like this. They speak and write and read Greek as well as native Greeks. My grandparents lived there for over 20 years in Athens. When they spoke to Greeks here in the United States, no on could tell they weren't Greeks. They looked and spoke the part.

What you have read above in English, is how the GNT reads. That's not koine Greek. That's translational Greek. And the LXX reads the same way.

What you will not find is Indo-European syntax in the Hebrew of the OT. You will not find Indo-European syntax in the Arabic of the Quran. You will not find Indo-European syntax in the Aramaic of the Peshitta. You will not find Turkic syntax in Sanskrit texts of Hinduism. You will not find Dravidian syntax in Chinese texts of Taoism.

But you *will* find Semitic grammatical features in the LXX and the GNT. And for the same reason. They are both translational Greek, and they both have Hebrew and Aramaic sources.

+Shamasha