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Glosses in the Septuagint
#1
I have Lancelot CL Brenton's translation of the Septuagint and I am reading Genesis. I just moved from my Hebrew-English Artscroll Tanakh to the Brenton Septuagint. I noticed this in Genesis 19:37-38:

"And the elder bore a son and called his name Moab, saying, He is of my father. This is the father of the Moabites to this present day. And the younger also bore a son, and called his name Amman, saying, The son of my family. This is the father of the Ammanites to this present day."

Here is the Latin Vulgate text (according to the Douay-Rheims Bible):

"So the two daughters of Lot were with child by their father. And the elder bore a son, and she called his name Moab: he is the father of the Moabites unto this day. The younger also bore a son, and she called his name Ammon, that is, the son of my people: he is the father of the Ammonites unto this day."

Here is the Masoretic text (according to The Stone Edition Tanach: Hebrew-English Edition):

"The older bore a son and she called his name Moab; he is the ancestor of Moab until this day. And the younger one also bore a son and she called his name Ben-ammi; he is the ancestor of the children of Ammon until this day."

Here is the Peshitta text (according to the Lamsa Bible):

"Thus were both the daughters of Lot with child by their father. And the first-born bore a son and called his name Moab; he is the father of the Moabites to this day. And the younger also bore a son and called his name Bar-ammi; he is the father of the Ammonites to this day."

To me, this seems to add more evidence to Aramaic primacy, considering the fact that transliterated terms and names are translated (Rabbi, Maran atha, etc) in the Greek text but almost always left untranslated unless there are dialectal differences (like Mark 15:34) or if there needs to be clarification due to similar words (Mark 3:17). What do you all think? Notice that the Peshitta doesn't even need to add glosses because of the similarity between Aramaic and Hebrew.
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