07-01-2013, 09:18 PM
We cannot be sure bro
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I just found a 100% Greek compliant translation, which does not exist in the Peshitta. Why would Tatian strip Semitic idiom if the da-Meharreshe was meant for semitic people (the Assyrians and the Syrians?) or why would the supposed Peshitta 'translators' add such idiom if it was not in the source language?
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Quote:* - The Old Syriac shares many similarities with the Western Greek text (aka Codex Bezae, aka Manuscript D) as textual critic Dr James Trimm demonstrates. And the Western Greek text seems to be an early Greek translation of the Peshitta as indicated by its ?Semiticness? (the NT authors were all Semites after all) and its variants with other Greek manuscripts, which stem from mistranslations/misunderstandings of the original Peshitta passages (split words).
I just found a 100% Greek compliant translation, which does not exist in the Peshitta. Why would Tatian strip Semitic idiom if the da-Meharreshe was meant for semitic people (the Assyrians and the Syrians?) or why would the supposed Peshitta 'translators' add such idiom if it was not in the source language?