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Question concerning the STRENGTH of grammer in John-Peshitta
#3
I asked this because the Greek, for these verses in John's Gospel, leaves a pretty strong impression to the reader with the "PRESENT-INDICATIVE." It lays pretty solid and clear emphasis to Jesus' words about the salvation he has to offer. Now, does the Aramaic do the same or is the grammer or tense of the words (in Aramaic) not as emphatic? Anyone else willing to chime in, please? Chuck, Jeremy, Distazo, Paul, Ivan (again, if you are at liberty) or anyone else?

Kindly,

Mike
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Re: Question concerning the STRENGTH of grammer in John-Pesh - by Mike Kar - 07-18-2013, 08:18 PM

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