06-22-2013, 10:37 AM
I don't see why this is a primacy proof to either side. Sorry <!-- s
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Just this, both languages were prominent and Cefa was known in both languages. However, 2 Peter in Aramaic is superior in several ways, especially 2 Peter 3:10 in Greek (rhoizedon, looks like a major translation error from Aramaic). As if the kingdom would come with a lot of noise.
The aramaic has this idiom 'men sheli' (out of silence) and this was understood as, "so, there must be noise" instead of they understood the idiom 'men sheli' means suddenly!
A great primacy proof, I suppose.
--><img src="{SMILIES_PATH}/smile.gif" alt="" title="Smile" /><!-- s -->Just this, both languages were prominent and Cefa was known in both languages. However, 2 Peter in Aramaic is superior in several ways, especially 2 Peter 3:10 in Greek (rhoizedon, looks like a major translation error from Aramaic). As if the kingdom would come with a lot of noise.
The aramaic has this idiom 'men sheli' (out of silence) and this was understood as, "so, there must be noise" instead of they understood the idiom 'men sheli' means suddenly!
A great primacy proof, I suppose.