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Aramaic in the Diaspora
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I was reading that Aramaic in the Diaspora didn't start declining until after Roman reprisals to Jewish revolts in 70 AD and in 135 AD, well after the death of the apostles Paul and Peter. Could this be evidence for Aramaic primacy? Peter wrote his first and second Epistles to the Babylonian church, which wouldn't have spoken Greek (also serves as reason for the strong Semitic flavor behind the Greek translation of II Peter). I Peter, as it was the more widely circulated of the Epistles of Peter, was probably able to reach a translator who was able to translate it into smoother Greek. Paul, if he wrote Hebrews, would have written to Aramaic-speaking people. Is there any evidence that there were Jews leading the congregations in Rome, Philippi, Ephesus, Colosse and Thessalonica? Timothy and Titus are said in the Peshitta to be half Aramaean, so that makes it almost certain that the Pastoral Epistles were penned in Aramaic. What about Philemon, could he have been an bilingual Greek, Jew, or Aramean?
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Aramaic in the Diaspora - by ScorpioSniper2 - 06-06-2013, 10:16 PM
Re: Aramaic in the Diaspora - by carlosmendoza - 06-14-2013, 03:39 PM
Re: Aramaic in the Diaspora - by ScorpioSniper2 - 06-15-2013, 01:33 AM

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