03-12-2013, 02:53 PM
distazo Wrote:bknight Wrote:I'm not sure exactly what my question is, but I am finding this curious. The new testament includes the word "christian" 3 times, either in singular or plural. It makes sense as a transliteration of Christianos, the root of which being Christos -- all very greek and it makes perfect sense.Hi Akhi (my friend)
So the three verses in question, Acts 11:26, 26:28 and 1 Peter 4:16, when you look them up in Peshitta you find the word krystiana , what looks to be a transliteration of the greek rather than a true aramaic word in its own right.
Anyway, that's all I have.
3 Greek loan-words. That's not bad for a country who's neighbours spoke Greek? <!-- s --><img src="{SMILIES_PATH}/smile.gif" alt="" title="Smile" /><!-- s -->
And I'm not sure calling Marcus Julius Agrippa, of the Herodian family, a "Semite" is a totally accurate statement. <!-- s --><img src="{SMILIES_PATH}/smile.gif" alt="" title="Smile" /><!-- s --> If I found the Peshitta to record Agrippa saying the Aramaic "Meshikhaya", I would highly suspect it was a translation of his original word "Krystiana".
BTW - There are lots of loanwords in the Aramaic of the Peshitta (Greek, Latin, Persian, etc.)
+Shamasha